- Aug 21, 2007
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It seems to me that if it's consensual, why is it rape?
You might say the implication is that the man is taking advantage of the woman. First of all, so what? Why do we not prosecute taken-advantage-of cases for consenting women older than 18? Second, if the woman consented, how can we say she was taken advantage of? Do we not trust her answer?
I'm looking for an answer other than, "Because it's f'd up." That sounds like morality. I'm not looking for a moral answer. I want to know why, when there's no harm done, statutory rape is or should be illegal.
You might say the implication is that the man is taking advantage of the woman. First of all, so what? Why do we not prosecute taken-advantage-of cases for consenting women older than 18? Second, if the woman consented, how can we say she was taken advantage of? Do we not trust her answer?
I'm looking for an answer other than, "Because it's f'd up." That sounds like morality. I'm not looking for a moral answer. I want to know why, when there's no harm done, statutory rape is or should be illegal.
