I was thinking of what I thought could be a proof, but I came up with a fatal flaw in my thinking......in fact I think you, RossGr, posted these exact thoughts in that previous thread.....
it can be proven that there exists exactly one irrational number between consecutive rational numbers. Since .9999999999<infinite> and 1 are consecutive rational numbers it can be shown that there exists exactly one irrational number between these two numbers, so .9999999999<infinite> != 1...
But, as I was thinking this, I realized that I was trying to assume that .99999999<infinite> and 1 were consecutive rational numbers, and it is a fatal flaw in mathematics to assume the thing you are trying to prove....
I still don't think they are the same, but I have no mathematical reasoning behind that, just a feeling and thoughts about how the universe works....maybe I should have gotten my bachelor's in philosophy instead of mathematics...oh well, too late now. However, RossGr's proofs show somewhat conclusively that he is right. I still have yet to ask my graduate mathematics student friend the answer to this question....