Originally posted by: FatJackSprat
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
Imagine a child who discovers that one night everytime he sneezes the thunder claps. As adults we would recognize it to be mere coincidence. The child's subjective belief that his sneezing caused the thunder would not change the reality of the situation as it is known to be.
No it wouldn't... and i don't exactly see how this fits in with predetermination...
It fits with predetermination as an analogy to your proposition that it individual belief of controlling one's actions takes precident over the actual situation of predetermination in a reality based on predetermination.
When you say "No it wouldn't" you're stating that the child's subjective belief that his sneezing (or for better analogy - clapping) causes the thunder changes the reality of the fact that his actions have no control over the occurence. In other words, his belief that he is causing thunder to occur makes it true?
I am aware of conditioning (undergrad bs in psych '96) but what an indivudal believes he is choosing to do does not matter where he does not actually have a choice. If Pavlov had trained his dogs to attack children when he rang the bell AND if it was truly an uncontrollable reaction (as would be the case for all actions in a predetermined existence) would the dogs be responsible for the attack? Would the dogs be any more responsible for the attack if all circumstances were the same except they believed that it was their choice to attack?
Our present judicial system has legal exceptions to crimes of specific intent where the crime is proven to have been committed by a defendant without the capacity or ability to control his freewill to an extent permitting him to act with intent. Where all behavior is predetermined, no one has free will, no one has intent.