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Thomases', Thomas', or Thomases?

J

Jingleheimer

Member
First off, this is a grammar question. I don't want to bore anyone who thinks this might be an interesting topic or current events, new video games, or pictures of anyone's girlfriend.
This year, my wife and I are doing Christmas cards for the first time in many years. It was going along smoothly and seemed easier than I thought it would be, until I noticed that many of the last names were written incorrectly. Yeah, I'm a dork and a nerd and proud of it. Now let me state my question...
I am addressing the cards to the entire family (made of more than one person). For the last name Mick, I have seen the plural version as The Micks and The Mick's. I believe The Micks is correct because an apostrophe indicates possession and clearly their family doesn't possess anything. The only way the apostrophe would work is when the card is addressed to The Mick's dog. Now, for some added confusion - how does it work when you are addressing a family with a last name that ends in 's'? For instance, everyone I have talked to about this has said it is correct to address the Thomas family as The Thomas'; moreover, it is definitely wrong to write it as The Thomases. I have even heard from some people to write The Thomas's. Now that everything is out there on my problem, please help me out. Which is it? The Thomases, Thomas', Thomas's, or Thomases'?
Thanks for any help. I would call my old high school English teacher, but I have a feeling that English teachers go to bed every night by 8:00 PM.

Thanks for the help,
Jon Mick (not Thomas)

 
Thomases. An apostrophe denotes ownership or a contraction.

Examples of correct uses:

I'm visiting the Thomases.
That is Thomas' chair.
That's the Thomases' dog.
The construction "Thomas's" is wrong.

"Apostrophes are NEVER ever used to make plurals."
"Apostrophes are NOT used for possessive pronouns or for noun plurals."

from the MLA handbook, 5th ed.:

To form the possessive of a plural proper noun, add only an apostrophe.

[examples:]
the Vanderbilts' estate
the Dickenses' economic woes
Click to expand...

last linky

When a family name (a proper noun) is pluralized, we almost always simply add an "s." So we go to visit the Smiths, the Kennedys, the Grays, etc.When a family name ends in s, x, ch, sh, or z, however, we form the plural by added -es, as in the Marches, the Joneses, the Maddoxes, the Bushes, the Rodriguezes. Do not form a family name plural by using an apostrophe; that device is reserved for creating possessive forms.
Click to expand...
 
I think it should be Thomases. I didn't say my opinion in my first post because I didn't want anyone's answer to be skewed. Either that or I didn't want to be wrong so didn't put my opinion until I found out the answer. Anyways, thanks for help and the great references (Bizmark). Your English teachers/professors would be proud.
 
Originally posted by: bizmark
Thomases. An apostrophe denotes ownership or a contraction.

Examples of correct uses:

I'm visiting the Thomases.
That is Thomas' chair.
That's the Thomases' dog.
The construction "Thomas's" is wrong.

"Apostrophes are NEVER ever used to make plurals."
"Apostrophes are NOT used for possessive pronouns or for noun plurals."

from the MLA handbook, 5th ed.:

To form the possessive of a plural proper noun, add only an apostrophe.

[examples:]
the Vanderbilts' estate
the Dickenses' economic woes
Click to expand...

last linky

When a family name (a proper noun) is pluralized, we almost always simply add an "s." So we go to visit the Smiths, the Kennedys, the Grays, etc.When a family name ends in s, x, ch, sh, or z, however, we form the plural by added -es, as in the Marches, the Joneses, the Maddoxes, the Bushes, the Rodriguezes. Do not form a family name plural by using an apostrophe; that device is reserved for creating possessive forms.
Click to expand...
Click to expand...
Wrong.. possessive of Thomas is Thomas's.
 
possessive of Thomas is Thomas's.
Click to expand...
Only if you went to a really bad school that didn't teach proper English. When creating a possessive form of a word that ends in "s", you simply add an apostrophe. Eg: Jesus' disciples, Thomas' car, Confucius' "Analects", etc.

ZV
 
Originally posted by: Zenmervolt
possessive of Thomas is Thomas's.
Click to expand...
Only if you went to a really bad school that didn't teach proper English. When creating a possessive form of a word that ends in "s", you simply add an apostrophe. Eg: Jesus' disciples, Thomas' car, Confucius' "Analects", etc.

ZV
Click to expand...

No.. that is for PLURALS. Thomas is not a plural word. Thomases' is correct. Thomas' is not.
 
Originally posted by: Jellomancer
Wrong.. possessive of Thomas is Thomas's.
Click to expand...

I grant that this is a matter of choice.

linky1

Some writers will say that the -s after Charles' is not necessary and that adding only the apostrophe (Charles' car) will suffice to show possession. Consistency is the key here: if you choose not to add the -s after a noun that already ends in s, do so consistently throughout your text. William Strunk's Elements of Style recommends adding the 's.
Click to expand...

linky to Elements of Style

Form the possessive singular of nouns with 's.
Follow this rule whatever the final consonant. Thus write,

Charles's friend
Burns's poems
the witch's malice

This is the usage of the United States Government Printing Office and of the Oxford University Press.
Click to expand...

However, I was giving examples of the proper uses of the stuff that Jingleheimer had in his poll. " Thomas' " is an acceptable denotation of ownership. Many prefer "Thomas's", but either is technically correct.

You say <<possessive of Thomas is "Thomas's">>, but I was trying to say <<" Thomas' " is possessive of Thomas>>. You understand the difference?
 
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