Originally posted by: DLeRium
Originally posted by: NanoStuff
It wouldn't because the belt is moving in direct proportion to the wheels of the plane. So the belt only accelerates if the wheels rotate faster, and the wheels will rotate faster if thrust is applied to the plane. 'Torque' would only be applied to the wheels by the belt if the belt attempted to rotate faster than the wheels.Originally posted by: JujuFish
This would place a torque on the wheels, spinning them even faster.Originally posted by: NanoStuff
Ok well... did you consider that if the wheels start spinning faster, the belt also starts moving back faster?
This is shown by the fact that the plane has to apply thrust in order for the belt to move. If the plane sits still, so does the belt, as such it does not attempt to accelerate the wheels itself, only compensate.
No I don't because it's not true.Originally posted by: DLeRium
You do realize that the conveyor belt provides 0 force if you assume the bearings are close to frictionless...
How is that not true. When you use rollers in statics classes, you assume only upward forces only. No horizontal forces. Frictionless bearings = 0 force by the conveyor belt. The only force on the wheels results in pure rotation and 0 translational force. Thus your energy by the conveyor belt is stored only in rotational energy and none of it goes into KE = 1/2mv^2.
^ absolutely correct. Lets see if someone wants to point out your "obvious" flaws in physics without backing it up with anything :roll: