thraashman
Lifer
- Apr 10, 2000
- 11,112
- 1,587
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For a "non-self enacting" treaty such as Vienna to be binding three distinct steps have to occur:
1. The treaty must be ratified by Congress
2. The treaty must be signed by the President
3. The treaty must be codified in USC through enacting legislation
In this case both #1 and #2 occurred but #3 never did despite the 48 year window since ratification and 3 year window since the prior decision on the matter. Without step #3 the treaty is not binding upon the Federal gov't or the states.
Fact of the matter is that the convicted murderer got a standard, fair trial and was convicted. He got 15 years of appeals and lost. Congress had 48 years to give him an additional "out", 3 of which were subject to additional lobbyist pressure specific to his case, and never took action.
You want to be indignant and full of faux rage over this case? Don't blame Texas, which followed the rule of law and did nothing wrong, blame Congress, whose inaction "cheated" the convicted out of another opportunity.
Actually, there is nothing in the Supremecy Clause that says a treaty has to be codifed into law by Congress. In fact it specifically says that treaties by the government supercede state laws and makes no mention of having to be enacted. The overly conservative supreme court that made the ruling was in violation of the Constitution. Which isn't surprising as they've proven time and again they don't know how the US Constitution works, as in fact no conservatives do.
