- Oct 22, 2000
- 24,514
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I've been out of the classroom too long and cannot remember how to calculate this:
If 1 person in 40 in a population has trait X, how large does a group need to be to have a 90% chance of containing a person with trait X?
I can't for the life of me remember what the equations are for that one. I'm digging out my dusty old Statistics textbook too, but I'm hoping someone here knows as well. If you answer, I'd prefer the equations used to arrive at that answer as opposed to just a number.
ZV
EDIT: OK, I found the good old "trial and error" way of figuring it, should have thought of that earlier. If 1 in 40 have trait X, then 39 in 40, or 97.5% do not. So simply figure the probability of the entire group not having trait X (0.975^[# people in group]) and once that hits 10% I've found my number. I blame the rustiness on having been out of school for 4 years and not having messed with Statistics in at least 6.
If 1 person in 40 in a population has trait X, how large does a group need to be to have a 90% chance of containing a person with trait X?
I can't for the life of me remember what the equations are for that one. I'm digging out my dusty old Statistics textbook too, but I'm hoping someone here knows as well. If you answer, I'd prefer the equations used to arrive at that answer as opposed to just a number.
ZV
EDIT: OK, I found the good old "trial and error" way of figuring it, should have thought of that earlier. If 1 in 40 have trait X, then 39 in 40, or 97.5% do not. So simply figure the probability of the entire group not having trait X (0.975^[# people in group]) and once that hits 10% I've found my number. I blame the rustiness on having been out of school for 4 years and not having messed with Statistics in at least 6.
