Should residents be allowed a vote on forcing developers to finish a building already in construction

amddude

Golden Member
Mar 9, 2006
1,711
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I got into a heated debate with a friend recently.

There is a building off of I-4 in Orlando that will someday house the broadcasting center and studios for a religious tv station. It has been under construction for at least 3 years. They are having some manner of financial difficulty in getting it finished. The frame looks to be completed and they are almost done putting windows on the "skeleton" to make it appear closer to completion.

It is a bit of an eyesore for this stretch of road. My friend thinks that if the residents of the city should be able to vote on a referendum to force this tv station to finish the building by X time or else it will be demolished.

He argues that the power resides in the people and if they vote it "down", it should go down.

I say this is wrong because (assuming they are not already in violation of some statute, I don't think they are) there is no law under which they can be forced to do this--AND, furthermore, that would be illegal because it is ex post facto.

The question ultimately is this:
Do the people have the authority to pass a referendum ordering the building's completion in some kind of time frame or otherwise it is demolished?
 

ProfJohn

Lifer
Jul 28, 2006
18,251
8
0
How about the twin hotels on Universal Blvd across the lake from Wet and Wild?

They have been sitting empty for at least 6 years. We are talking about two 15 story buildings just sitting there for some reason.

Perhaps part of a building permit should include a time frame for completion and if they can?t meet that time frame due to lack of funds they should be forced to sell the building or something.
 

ViRGE

Elite Member, Moderator Emeritus
Oct 9, 1999
31,516
167
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Originally posted by: dmcowen674
The people should be able to do a (RED) Reverse Eminent Domain on those properties.
Have the government give land it already has to a private individual?:confused: Because a normal ED act is taking private property for the public good.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,894
47
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www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: ViRGE
Originally posted by: dmcowen674
The people should be able to do a (RED) Reverse Eminent Domain on those properties.
Have the government give land it already has to a private individual?:confused: Because a normal ED act is taking private property for the public good.

Affirmative.

It should be a two way street.
 

ViRGE

Elite Member, Moderator Emeritus
Oct 9, 1999
31,516
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But I don't think the broadcasting station is government property.
 

bsobel

Moderator Emeritus<br>Elite Member
Dec 9, 2001
13,346
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Originally posted by: ViRGE
But I don't think the broadcasting station is government property.

It's not and his comment makes no sense, just more ramblings.
 

sandorski

No Lifer
Oct 10, 1999
70,101
5,640
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It certainly is within a Democratically elected Governments power to impose that type of condition. Should you though and especially if you're planning on making it retroactive to deal with a situation? I'd say No. This seems a better example of why a Law should exist to prevent this kind of occurance.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,894
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: sandorski
It certainly is within a Democratically elected Governments power to impose that type of condition. Should you though and especially if you're planning on making it retroactive to deal with a situation? I'd say No. This seems a better example of why a Law should exist to prevent this kind of occurance.

Exactly.

There was a guy jailed in Tulsa recently for failing to mow his yard.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,894
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: sandorski
It certainly is within a Democratically elected Governments power to impose that type of condition. Should you though and especially if you're planning on making it retroactive to deal with a situation? I'd say No. This seems a better example of why a Law should exist to prevent this kind of occurance.

Exactly.

There was a guy jailed in Tulsa recently for failing to mow his yard.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,894
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: sandorski
It certainly is within a Democratically elected Governments power to impose that type of condition. Should you though and especially if you're planning on making it retroactive to deal with a situation? I'd say No. This seems a better example of why a Law should exist to prevent this kind of occurance.

Exactly.

There was a guy jailed in Tulsa recently for failing to mow his yard.
 

dmcowen674

No Lifer
Oct 13, 1999
54,894
47
91
www.alienbabeltech.com
Originally posted by: sandorski
It certainly is within a Democratically elected Governments power to impose that type of condition. Should you though and especially if you're planning on making it retroactive to deal with a situation? I'd say No. This seems a better example of why a Law should exist to prevent this kind of occurance.

Exactly.

There was a guy jailed in Tulsa recently for failing to mow his yard.