Should CC Sabathia get a no-hitter?

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Farang

Lifer
Jul 7, 2003
10,913
3
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I think this is less of an outrage because he is the one who fucked up.. plus the scorer disputes it, but even if it is a disputed call Sabathia has nobody to blame but himself.
 

AstroManLuca

Lifer
Jun 24, 2004
15,628
5
81
Um... what am I missing? Because the video I just watched showed me a batter hitting the ball and getting to first base, thanks to an error by the pitcher.

Why would the pitcher get a no hitter in that situation?
 

jonnyjack

Platinum Member
Oct 13, 1999
2,162
1
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should have been an error cause he would have been out for sure had there been a throw that was on line.

it's too bad the scorer messed up. but i agree that it shouldn't be awarded now since everything (batter and pitcher mentality) would be different had the hit column read zero.

i just wish i had that gem today instead. first week of fantasy playoffs!
 

Yzzim

Lifer
Feb 13, 2000
11,990
1
76
Originally posted by: AstroManLuca
Um... what am I missing? Because the video I just watched showed me a batter hitting the ball and getting to first base, thanks to an error by the pitcher.

Why would the pitcher get a no hitter in that situation?

If it's an error in fielding the ball then the hit is taken away and counted as an error.

0 hits, 1 error (just the one, I think?) means a no hitter for CC
 

BeauJangles

Lifer
Aug 26, 2001
13,941
1
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Originally posted by: Farang
I think this is less of an outrage because he is the one who fucked up.. plus the scorer disputes it, but even if it is a disputed call Sabathia has nobody to blame but himself.

I think the scorer really screwed up, IMO. First, I think Sabathia does make that play 99% of the time. Second, it's an unspoken rule that the first hit should be a clean one. That hit was anything but clean.

We also should remember that Sabathia made a ridiculous play earlier in the game, barehanding a line drive right at him.
 

BeauJangles

Lifer
Aug 26, 2001
13,941
1
0
Originally posted by: AstroManLuca
Um... what am I missing? Because the video I just watched showed me a batter hitting the ball and getting to first base, thanks to an error by the pitcher.

Why would the pitcher get a no hitter in that situation?

An error isn't scored as a hit, neither is a walk.

You could walk 10 guys in a game and commit six errors, lose, and still throw a no-hitter. Hence why most people don't place a ton of value in the no-no.

The perfect game, on the other hand, is a thing of beauty.
 

ric1287

Diamond Member
Nov 29, 2005
4,845
0
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Its a sketchy situation since it happend in the 5th inning. There is alot more pressure pitching in the 9th if you have a no hitter going vs. a 1 hitter.
 

BeauJangles

Lifer
Aug 26, 2001
13,941
1
0
Originally posted by: ric1287
Its a sketchy situation since it happend in the 5th inning. There is alot more pressure pitching in the 9th if you have a no hitter going vs. a 1 hitter.

There's no doubt that it changes the dynamic of the game. Not only would CC have felt much more pressure, but the Pirates' hitters would have definitely had a "this shit stops now" attitude in the later innings. People don't like being no-hit and it's a great motivator.

Just look at the Angels / Sox game a month ago in Fenway. Lackey had a no-no through 8 and Pedroia came up with the "I'm ending this shit" attitude and laced a single into center field.

That's why I think it's unlikely MLB will change the call, though I have a feeling they will remind scorers that the first hit should be a clean one.