nehalem256
Lifer
Yeah that may be so, but my point was that the OP considered poors (alledgedly) voting in a way which favors them specifically (implied at the expense of others) a problem, but apparantly did not consider rich voting the same way (well proven to be at the expense of others) not a problem.
There are a lot more poor people than rich people. Hence them being a bigger problem.
Also, taking voting power away from poor people might also inadvertently take away practical electoral power from rich people as the party that had previously attempted to appeal to poor people would need to look for new demographic(ie the middle class) for support.