Scientifically speaking, how did all particles come to have the same mass/spin/charge?

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beer

Lifer
Jun 27, 2000
11,169
1
0
Proton decay changes everything. I guess that invalidates my idea entirely. I'll look into it. I have never even heard about this before and I am quite shocked at that fact.
 

fredtam

Diamond Member
Jun 6, 2003
5,694
2
76
Originally posted by: beer
Proton decay changes everything. I guess that invalidates my idea entirely. I'll look into it. I have never even heard about this before and I am quite shocked at that fact.

Don't let my simple way of explaining things fool you next time. ;) I spend a lot of time wondering about the same sh!t.
 

fredtam

Diamond Member
Jun 6, 2003
5,694
2
76
Originally posted by: beer
Proton decay changes everything. I guess that invalidates my idea entirely. I'll look into it. I have never even heard about this before and I am quite shocked at that fact.

Yes one day we will reach equilibrium between matter and antimatter and there will again be nothing.
 

Siddhartha

Lifer
Oct 17, 1999
12,505
3
81
Originally posted by: beer
This is, of course, a fundamental question that may seem incredibly far-reaching. So we have established charge, spin, and mass of neutrons, protons, electrons, not to mention the other particles, to an accuracy of one part in almost 40?

Now assuming that the total number of particles in the universe is on the order of 10^80....what events in the big bang caused such uniformity?

Why shouldn't all particles have the same mass, spin, and charge? BTW, I would not be too surprised they find out when the technology gets good enough that all matter does not have the same mass, spin, and charge.
 

silverpig

Lifer
Jul 29, 2001
27,703
12
81
Originally posted by: Dr Smooth
Originally posted by: beer
This is, of course, a fundamental question that may seem incredibly far-reaching. So we have established charge, spin, and mass of neutrons, protons, electrons, not to mention the other particles, to an accuracy of one part in almost 40?

Now assuming that the total number of particles in the universe is on the order of 10^80....what events in the big bang caused such uniformity?

Why shouldn't all particles have the same mass, spin, and charge? BTW, I would not be too surprised they find out when the technology gets good enough that all matter does not have the same mass, spin, and charge.

They have to be the same. If the charge of the proton and electron differed by as much as one part in 400 million, your body would instantly explode.
 

silverpig

Lifer
Jul 29, 2001
27,703
12
81
Originally posted by: beer
Yes other particles may have existed but were lost due to being unstable. Its like us making new elements that decay quickly. Under certain conditions those same elements may be stable and continue to exist.

I think this idea. Let's run with it for a minute. So what you are saying is that other particles may have existed but were 'lost.' This presents a paradox of sorts. Fundamental particles cannot be randomly 'lost' without violating conservation principles, and fundamental particles cannot decay. Hypothetically speaking, you are saying that a particle with, say, half the charge and twice the mass of a proton would have been 'lost' due to stability. How would it have decayed into anything, then, or been lost without violating conservation principles?

Well, assuming such a particle could exist, it must have an antiparticle (maybe itself). They could have annihilated into gamma rays, or by another means.