Originally posted by: HappyPuppy
Originally posted by: myusername
Anyone else mildly interested in exactly how microsoft was able to "tip" the german auhorities as the the origin?
splain yourself, boy.
😛
I am not well educated on issues of networking or programming, so bear with me on the lack of proper terminology or outright gaffes...
It would seem that if someone were writing a piece of malicious code, they would first be certain that the tools they were using were not registered in their name.
IIRC, as we discovered with the melissa virus, MS Word incorporates the MAC address of the source computer into each saved document. It would not be unreasonable to expect that all MS software does this.
Consequently, anyone serious about releasing something like this would either make sure that the system they are coding on contains no MS software, and/or would use a disposable ethernet card or just change the MAC address of the card if the card is capable.
As the MAC address is the only "traceable" item on a computer connected to a network (outside of the computer name itself, when applicable), it would suggest that in order for MS to trace down this user would require additional malware coded into the OS (assuming the user was running windows), or the ability to subpoena several ISP's - which as far as I know is not yet within their power.
IOW, unless the kid did not take proper precautions (and it might be that way, as thus far it looks like he is claiming it was accidental), it *should* be fundamentally impossible for a private corporation to track him down without breaking the law themselves.
I know I'm a dummy, and anyone who *really* knows the answer to this would of course have the discretion to 1.Not respond to dummies and 2.Not publicly display their knowledge - but if you could point out some flaws in my logic, I'd love to be enlightened.