- Oct 9, 1999
- 31,516
- 167
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Alright, perhaps the AT P&N legal scholars can help me out here. Now Robert Blake was found innocent in his criminal trial over his wife's murder, but was found guilty in the civil trial over the same thing. Now I understand the difference between a civil and criminal trial, and the lower bar for conviction in a civil court, but I guess I don't get how he can still be tried in two separate courts without violating the double-jeopardy clause.
So I suppose the question is this: what legal background/theory allows someone to be tried in a civil court after being found innocent in a criminal court? It seems to me that being found innocent in a criminal matter should be overriding here.
So I suppose the question is this: what legal background/theory allows someone to be tried in a civil court after being found innocent in a criminal court? It seems to me that being found innocent in a criminal matter should be overriding here.
