Maybe you should take a few more minutes to make your posts. (See Feralkid's post.) To answer your question it depends on whether the intent was to kill off a race, because you know that's what genocide means and all. Anyway, I'm done posting in the this troll thread. COW is much more entertaining than you or Rabidmongoose but unfortunately he won't share more about his racist incident.
You're redefining many words: genocide, intent, inaction. You're also ignoring many questions.
Are you denying that 4 million people died?
Are you denying that the famine started because of British policies?
Are you denying that Churchill thwarted attempts to stop the deaths?
Why does it matter what the population is? Why does new births in the population matter?
So you're claiming that actively thwarting relief because of ego, racism, and economic reasons is an inaction? Are you also claiming that the British did not create the situation that led to the genocide because of their ill-made policies? I want to understand how you can consider it an inaction.
You're going to great lengths to brush off one of the worst genocides of the 20th century. Your equivalent Neo-Nazi form would ask: Where is Hitler's intent? How do we know what he actually intended? Did he mean what he wrote and said? A genocide is so-and-so, not this.
It's the exact same situation here with Churchill - the same conditions, scenarios, and statements as Hitler. Yet somehow it's not genocide. Even one of Churchill's closest advisers said he was no different than Hitler on the issue.