Originally posted by: PurdueRy
Originally posted by: tjaisv
Originally posted by: DnetMHZ
Why would the store want to pay a fee for a purchase you didn't really make?
Why couldn't the store just charge you that fee?
Why can't you go to a bank...or get a debit card?
Think about it in a realistic sense. What do people use CC's for mostly....larger purchases. People don't put(for the most part) a snickers on a CC. Now suppose I had sold someone a $5000 Panasonic Plasma TV. Now they are trying to tell me I HAVE to give them cash back if they return it. You think a store has those type of funds withing easy access? Hell no.
LOL. Well what if u paid by cash, check or money order, then they'd have to give u cash, or write u a store check. So that shouldn't be a valid reason to disallow cashback on cc refunds.
"Well, you can see why no one gives cash refunds for a credit card purchase. You're trying to do exactly what the rules are set up to prevent!...."
"....You are basically trying to circumvent the way that CC companies make much of their profit (they DON'T profit from your interest payments)"
Of course they profit from interest payments, as well as late fees, high APRs, higher cash advance APRs, etc etc. Bottom line, they're there to GET YOUR MONEY in the most lucrative way possible.
OK, so my question is why doesn't any cc company (that i know of) allow your cash advance limit to be equal to your whole cc limit? As they make more off your cash advances than your retail purchases, seems to me like this would be a GREAT way for the cc companies to allow people to run up their cards faster and subsequently collect more on the higher cash advance interest rates people would have to pay. Am i not seeing something here? The only negative i guess would be having more people go bankrupt because they've been enticed to be more irresponsible and end up in debilitating debt.