Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: Armitage
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: Armitage
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: Armitage
The air pressure would certainly be high ... the weight of a column of air about 6,600 Km high! But the weight of a given volume of air would change through the distance ... increase due to pressure as you go down, but decrease due to the gravity gradient inside the earth. Sounds like a fun problem in integral calculus! Matbe I'll fire up Mathematica over lunch and have a wack at it.
As to whether you get there or not ... unless the pressure gets so high that the density of the air becomes greater then the density of whatever is falling such that boyancy becomes an issue, I don't see how you wouldn't. Drag alone wouldn't prevent it because drag is proportional to velocity, and we're talking about aerodynamic drag, not static friction ... as long as there is a force on the body, there will be motion, and as long as you aren't exactly at the center of the earth there will be a force due to gravity.
It's not just a foce, but a net force on a body which will produce acceleration and motion. At super slow speeds, is the force of friction of the air equal to the gravitational force of attraction? If so, it may stop before it gets to the center.
Fluid drag is proportional to velocity, so as velocity approaches 0, so will the force due to the drag. So, if there is a gravitational force, no matter how small, then the velocity has to be non-zero, right? It will be at critical velocity ... Fdrag = Fgravity, and for there to be a drag force, there must be a velocity. No velocity = no drag = unbalanced force
Here's a program to describe this motion better... is the air resistance enough to cause critical damping?
here
(think of the 0 on the y-axis as being the center of the earth)
Meh ... need some plugin that I don't have installed. Here's a static graph of what I think it likely shows:
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/oscda2.html
Maybe I see what you're getting at ... if the system is overdamped, it will approach, but never quite reach 0. In most systems where there is a component of mechanical friction involved as well, the velocity will go to 0 and you won't get any closer, but in this case, since we only have fluid friction, I think that your velocity will never go precisely to 0 ... it will continue to approach the 0 position indefinitely.
Note that an overdamped oscilator with a high enough initial velocity
can overshoot 0 once, and then will approach from the other side.
Bingo! Now you see what I'm talking about.

I've seen the trivia problem multiple times, the answer of which is "you'd come out at the other side of the earth, then fall back through again back and forth indefinitely" But, that's only if you could ignore air resistance. I've just always wanted to have an accurate answer for that question
It's been a while since I did any actual calculations, but I remember thinking "wow, it'd take a long time before you were even close to the center" If anyone wants to have fun, just try deriving an equation for the acceleration of gravity (or the force) as a function of distance from the center of the earth. I'm sure there's got to be an easier way than the way I started. I started with a circle, and as a point on the surface moves inward, I subtracted the area "behind it" from the area "in front of it", creating a crescent. Then, center of mass of the crescent, distance to the center.... it got messy quickly enough that I quit, waiting for a more elegant and simple solution.
Don't you simply neglect the mass of the spherical shell above you, since the force due to gravity inside a spherical shell is 0?
So in the gravitational equation F = GMm/r^2, the primary mass M is now a function of r, specifically M = 4/3 pi r ^3 d where d is the density.
So now we have F = G 4/3 pi r d m
Ah ha! Now I remember... I knew there was something simpler the last time I did that. But, I remember that the simplification that I used - using circles - didn't work.
whoa.. This was unexpected...
Assuming a uniform density (which we know isn't true) and realizing that we can neglect the hollow sphere above us, use
F = Gm1m2/r^2
m1 = mass of you
m2 equals mass of the sphere of the earth below you after neglecting the outer sphere above you
r=distance from center of the earth
R=radius of earth (assume spherical)
me = mass of the earth
m2 is the volumetric proportion of the earth remaining times the mass of the earth
or (4/3 Pi r^3)/(4/3 Pi R^3) * me
a little cancelling
m2 = r^3 * me / R^3
substitute:
F = G m1 r^3 *me / (r^2 R^3)
rearrange and separate out G m1 me / R*2 (which is equal to the force at the surface of the earth)
and you're left with r/R
So, the force as a function of distance from the center of the earth
F(r) = Force at the surface * r/R, where R = radius of the earth.
So, at a radius of 1/10 the radius of the earth, the force would equal 1/10 the force on the surface.

progress so far... unless I've made a mistake?