FeathersMcGraw
Diamond Member
- Oct 17, 2001
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Originally posted by: FrontlineWarrior
Another question: Suppose the US secretly prints a grip of new money. They buy a grip of stuff from FOREIGN markets, on a one time, kinda hush hush, deal. Now, eventually this money will be used to buy US stuff, and basically we get foreign goods for nothing. So if this is a one time thing, can this method be used to... let's say... reduce the national debt a little, albeit illegally?
I suggest you go to your library and find a textbook on basic economics.
Even if you want to assume that just printing money gets you something for nothing (and it doesn't: those foreign governments can now take the money you've just put into circulation, use it to buy American goods, creating demand and inflating prices just as if that money had been originally used domestically), the fact that you've bought foreign goods correspondingly reduces the need for American goods of the type purchased, which means that American firms are going to see reduced revenue. Reduced revenue (typically) leads to lower profits, a reduced ability to invest/hire new workers, and, in extreme cases, layoffs. This impacts the ability of workers for those companies to continue to purchase goods and services, and now the "free money" you've created has negatively impacted certain sectors of domestic industry.