Originally posted by: KIAman
????? Where the heck are YOU getting your formula from?
Kinetic Energy = 1/2M * V^2, I don't even know where you pulled (mv^2)/2 from, that doesn't even derivate into any other energy equations.
EDIT: The formula is one and the same, haha. Wow, I am really tired.
And no, it is NOT appropriate to measure a bullet's power in Force. Force has a deceleration component that you absolutely cannot know or predict. Is the bullet going to magically come to a complete stop once it hits its target in.... 1 milli second? in 1/10 of a second? How do you know? What is the object and what is the property of that object? You cannot know.
Joules is a good metric to describe a bullet's power because it is independent of the object it is hitting.
Let's make an example to help clear this up.
Situation 1: Let's say you shoot a .22 hunting rifle at a distance of 100y at a piece of meat 2 feet thick.
Situation 2: Let's say you shoot a .22 hunting rifle at a distance of 100y at a piece of depleted uranium 2 feet thick.
Using logic, you would think that the bullet has the same impact power on either target, because you are firing the exact same bullet with the exact same speed and distance. Using F=MA, situation 2 will create MUCH more force then situation 1. I'll let you let that sink in as to why.
Damnit, now I have to think and my brain is hurting recovering all my servers. Thanks! Jerk! 🙂
You toss around physics terms - force, power, etc., as if you pull them out of a hat.
Power: watts
Energy: joules
Force: newtons
Momentum: kgm/s
impulse: N*s = kgm/s
And, in your depleted uranium example, in both cases (assuming the bullet doesn't pass through the meat), both objects will receive the same impulse (more or less*), but since the time is greater in the meat, it experiences a smaller force & vice versa for the uranium.
*more or less because I assume the meat is less dense than the uranium, thus it will be moving faster than the uranium after the impact. This difference is, for all practical purposes, negligible.
Originally posted by: tcsenter
This is also why you can pee in the bathroom of an airliner traveling 500MPH.
However, when you take drag into account, this is why if you pee in the direction you're traveling while strapped to the roof of a plane like a stunt rider, you're going to end up with wet clothing.
OP: since we're going with the assumption of 50 feet per second when fired in the open, while at rest, then:
If we ignore air resistance, final speed = 5050 feet per second
If we don't ignore air resistance, 5000 < final speed < 5050 feet per second.
What the heck is so hard about that?!
Reason it will be less than 5050: when the gunpowder ignites, it imparts an impulse to the bullet - which has a component of time. At rest, a bullet doesn't go from 0 to 50 ft per second instantaneously; there's a very small amount of time involved. During that time, drag forces act on the bullet; if there were no air, then the final speed would be slightly greater than 50 ft per second. Now, when it's already going 5000 ft per second, assuming that the gunpowder were able to provide the same impulse - over the same time (I can't see what's wrong with that assumption), then drag forces are going to act on the bullet for that very brief amount of time. However, as you increase from 5000 ft per second to 5050 ft the amount of drag is significantly more than the amount encountered during 0 to 50.