Triumph
Lifer
- Oct 9, 1999
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Originally posted by: Specop 007
Originally posted by: dullard
Yes, the right to bear arms basically has an asterisk next to it. Please read the 2nd amendment. I'll write one of the two recognized versions:Originally posted by: Throckmorton
Why does the right to bear arms stop at semi-automatic rifles? ...
Does the "right to bear arms" have an asterix next to it, or does an arm only constitute the type of arms that you're an enthusiast about?
Your "asterisk" has been bolded in the quote. This "asterisk" has been clarified in the US supreme court:A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the People to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
Until that ruling is further clarified, you have the FEDERAL right to bear any arm that can be shown to be ordinary miliary equipment or for common defense. I highlight federal since it is possible but highly unlikely that a state can constitutionally take that right away.In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a 'shotgun having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length' at this time has some reasonable relationship to any preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense.
Now back to your question. At what point is a weapon neither "ordinary military equipment" nor "common defense". A bomb is military equipment, but is it ordinary for the military to all carry bombs with them? Probably not. Same with cannons and fully automatic weapoins. Yes, they are military equipment, but they aren't ordinary. Nor are they really necessary for common defense.
A future court case could remove the "ordinary" restriction if they provide evidence requested in the supreme court decision I quoted above. But until that happens, government can infringe our rights to the non-ordinary weapons.
Your view and opinion is outdated.
Since Heller the right to own IS an individual right. The liberal states are too chickenshit to uphold their state laws however and have the case tried again and become incorporated so technically yes ytour right. State law COULD override that but thus far the liberals are too fucking scared to push it.
Now you can go ahead and bold up the militia part all you want, frankly it just makes you look like a jackass as the Heller brief clearly states the first part of the statement has little bearing on the second part.
Look, it doesn't really matter. Whichever way you interpret the 2nd Amendment, the federal government has no right to enact laws that would inhibit the way a state chooses to run its militia. If my state wants its militia to be made up of citizens who have their own fully automatic firearms, than the feds have no right to infringe upon that. Which is why the NFA and FOPA are unconstitutional. Additionally, the Miller case supports this - fully automatic firearms and rifles with barrel lengths less than 16" are both in common military use by individual soldiers. Yes they're not banned, but the ability to possess them is certainly being infringed upon by federal regulation. So depending on how your state wants to run its militia, firearms laws should be regulated at the state level only. Anything else is unconstitutional. And if you live in a crappy state, then that sucks for you!