Originally posted by: AgaBoogaBoo
1 in infinite chance
If you think .9 repeating = 1, then yes, would be 0 I imagine assuming you think .0000000000...00001 equals 0
Originally posted by: UncleWai
Use the normal distribution for example, P(x=X) is 0. It's like those calculus reasoning, you need a really small interval to have a probability.
Originally posted by: Goosemaster
1/infinity.... which approaches zero...
so the probability approaches zero, and if you actionally define the set as the set of all reals, then yes, the probability is zero
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Sorry, try again. There is a 1/6 chance that you will roll a one and a 5/6 chance you will not.
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Sorry, try again. There is a 1/6 chance that you will roll a one and a 5/6 chance you will not.
Nah. The event occurs or it does not. It's quite simple.
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Sorry, try again. There is a 1/6 chance that you will roll a one and a 5/6 chance you will not.
Nah. The event occurs or it does not. It's quite simple.
Hahahaha. If only life were that simple.
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Sorry, try again. There is a 1/6 chance that you will roll a one and a 5/6 chance you will not.
Nah. The event occurs or it does not. It's quite simple.
Hahahaha. If only life were that simple.
There's a 50% chance that it is.
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Sorry, try again. There is a 1/6 chance that you will roll a one and a 5/6 chance you will not.
Nah. The event occurs or it does not. It's quite simple.
Hahahaha. If only life were that simple.
There's a 50% chance that it is.
And there is a 100% chance I'm going to bed now.
Good night.
Originally posted by: Dissipate
I was thinking about probability and I thought of this. If you have a sample space of infinite events, does that mean that any event in that sample space has a 0 chance of ocurring?
Originally posted by: AgaBoogaBoo
1 in infinite chance
If you think .9 repeating = 1, then yes, would be 0 I imagine assuming you think .0000000000...00001 equals 0
Originally posted by: OdiN
Originally posted by: hypn0tik
Originally posted by: OdiN
All probabilities are 50%. Either an event will occur, or it will not.
So the probability of getting a 1 after rolling a fair die is 50%? Not quite.
You are probably (no pun intended), thinking of Bernoulli Trials, where a 'success' is defined, and the outcome is either a success or failure. (Note that the probability of success is not necessarily 50%).
No. 50%. You will either roll a 1 or you will not.
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: Dissipate
I was thinking about probability and I thought of this. If you have a sample space of infinite events, does that mean that any event in that sample space has a 0 chance of ocurring?
How about this as an example:
Select a real number at random between 0 and 1.
The probability of any particular event *is* zero.
However, it is impossible to select a real number x at random such that 0 <= x < 1
If you want to select a number with a precision of the nearest tenth, then there are ten such numbers: .0, .1, .2, ... , .9
The probability of any number is 1/10.
If you want precision to the nearest hundredth, the probability is 1/100.
However, if we wish to consider the answer to be .1000000000...0000 with 99 zeros, the probability is 1/10^100.
Nonetheless, as I already said, it is impossible to actually choose *at random* a number between 0 and 1, with infinite precision. As soon as you specify the number of decimal places before the rest of the digits are 0, you have made it a finite set of numbers. How could you ever randomly select a number (at random) and have an infinite number of decimal places? Perhaps, have a computer start with a decimal and randomly insert digits? It would never finish. Thus, as hypnOtic said, you can have a probability of the event being on a certain interval, i.e. a probability of the number being between .40000235 and .40000236.
Also, I hope Odin is just joking around... An event will either occur, or it won't occur. The sum of the probability of it occurring = 1. But, there are a lot more pairs of positive numbers that sum to one besides just .5 and .5.
edit: I may be wrong.... can someone give a counter-example where it is possible for an event to occur with a probability of 0?
Originally posted by: Dissipate
Originally posted by: DrPizza
Originally posted by: Dissipate
I was thinking about probability and I thought of this. If you have a sample space of infinite events, does that mean that any event in that sample space has a 0 chance of ocurring?
How about this as an example:
Select a real number at random between 0 and 1.
The probability of any particular event *is* zero.
However, it is impossible to select a real number x at random such that 0 <= x < 1
If you want to select a number with a precision of the nearest tenth, then there are ten such numbers: .0, .1, .2, ... , .9
The probability of any number is 1/10.
If you want precision to the nearest hundredth, the probability is 1/100.
However, if we wish to consider the answer to be .1000000000...0000 with 99 zeros, the probability is 1/10^100.
Nonetheless, as I already said, it is impossible to actually choose *at random* a number between 0 and 1, with infinite precision. As soon as you specify the number of decimal places before the rest of the digits are 0, you have made it a finite set of numbers. How could you ever randomly select a number (at random) and have an infinite number of decimal places? Perhaps, have a computer start with a decimal and randomly insert digits? It would never finish. Thus, as hypnOtic said, you can have a probability of the event being on a certain interval, i.e. a probability of the number being between .40000235 and .40000236.
Also, I hope Odin is just joking around... An event will either occur, or it won't occur. The sum of the probability of it occurring = 1. But, there are a lot more pairs of positive numbers that sum to one besides just .5 and .5.
edit: I may be wrong.... can someone give a counter-example where it is possible for an event to occur with a probability of 0?
I'm not sure if I buy that argument. I would just say pick a number between 1 and infinity. Now you are going to get a number even though you may not be able to write it down.