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Question about manual vs. automatic

Hellotalkie

Golden Member
My tiburon is a 5 speed, I've driven many other 5 speeds
So along with that, I've also driven a plentiful amount of 4 speed + OD automatics.

lets say driving around 70 to 80

Why is it that when i'm in 5th gear, my revs are around 3500 to 4000, comparing to almost many automatics they're are significantly lower to about upper 2ks to lower 3ks.

i've found it common in 5 speed manuals, vs. the 4 speed autos.

Isn't it harder on the engine at high rpms? It seems like a constant 3600rpm is pretty dreadful on gas?

this might be a dumb question but i've always been curious
 
You're comparing two different cars with two different engines with two different transmissions with not the same amount of gears. An engine could redline all the way up to 8k while one may redline only to 6k. The same engine speeds are going to treat the different engines different.
 
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.
 
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.
 
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

The majority of automatics will lock the torque converter in the highest gear(s) at cruise, so there's no torque multiplication from the TC in most cases when an automatic is in its highest gear. Even if we assume that lockup is used as an ersatz "gear", the RPM difference at cruise between a fully open TC and a fully locked TC is typically only 200-300 RPM, not nearly enough to fully compensate for the differences the OP is noting.

On to the OP's question:

3,500 to 4,000 RPM at 80 mph would indicate an economy car with a small 4-cylinder engine that has precious little torque. Because of this the car will be geared very low in order to obtain marginally-acceptable performance. If such a car has sporting pretense, then it will be geared even lower still in an attempt to compensate for the engine's lack of torque.

The bottom line here is that gearing decisions are made on a car-by-car basis (and even differ in the same car depending on engine choice) so you cannot compare the manual transmission in one car to the automatic in another without introducing a large amount of additional variables.

ZV
 
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.
 
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.

You're part of the reason why many people find distate in manual-transmission snobs such as yourself. In fact you're entirely wrong. The automatic transmission is the predominant choice in nearly all Asian countries. Also, considering one of the best all-around sports cars in the world (Nissan GT-R), uses an automatic transmission, it basically puts its foot in your ass.

Most of the time you're random spews against American culture, SUVs, trucks, and domestic manufacturers is simply your humorous banter, but at time you genuinely surprise me with just how stupid you really are Jules. It's even more shocking when I actually realise you genuinely believe what you are saying.
 
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.

The slushbox is standard here in the states, whether or not we want to accept it, lol.

I wonder if there's any figures or data regarding auto vs. manual sales...
 
"My tiburon is a 5 speed, I've driven many other 5 speeds "

Try test driving a car with a 6-speed manual transmission and see what your RPMs will be 🙂

Here is some interesting data (Honda Accord 2009 example):

5-Speed Manual Transmission
Gear Ratios: 1st: 3.267, 2nd: 1.778, 3rd: 1.154, 4th: 0.870, ?
5th: 0.647, Reverse: 3.583, Final Drive Ratio: 4.39

Close-Ratio 6-Speed Manual Transmission (available)
Gear Ratios: 1st: 3.933, 2nd: 2.478, 3rd: 1.700, 4th: 1.250, 5th: 0.976, ?
6th: 0.771, Reverse: 4.008, Final Drive Ratio: 3.55
 
Originally posted by: darom
"My tiburon is a 5 speed, I've driven many other 5 speeds "

Try test driving a car with a 6-speed manual transmission and see what your RPMs will be 🙂

Here is some interesting data (Honda Accord 2009 example):

5-Speed Manual Transmission
Gear Ratios: 1st: 3.267, 2nd: 1.778, 3rd: 1.154, 4th: 0.870, ?
5th: 0.647, Reverse: 3.583, Final Drive Ratio: 4.39

Close-Ratio 6-Speed Manual Transmission (available)
Gear Ratios: 1st: 3.933, 2nd: 2.478, 3rd: 1.700, 4th: 1.250, 5th: 0.976, ?
6th: 0.771, Reverse: 4.008, Final Drive Ratio: 3.55

Not quite that simple. My car has a 6 speed and I do 4200rpm at 80mph.

Then again, a GM tremec 6 speed car like a camaro, t/a, corvette etc do about 1700rpm at the same speed. So it's mainly a function of the engine in the car as mentioned above.
 
Originally posted by: thecoolnessrune
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.

You're part of the reason why many people find distate in manual-transmission snobs such as yourself. In fact you're entirely wrong. The automatic transmission is the predominant choice in nearly all Asian countries. Also, considering one of the best all-around sports cars in the world (Nissan GT-R), uses an automatic transmission, it basically puts its foot in your ass.

Most of the time you're random spews against American culture, SUVs, trucks, and domestic manufacturers is simply your humorous banter, but at time you genuinely surprise me with just how stupid you really are Jules. It's even more shocking when I actually realise you genuinely believe what you are saying.

Gotcha. 😛

I do dislike automatics though...and what I said about Spain is true.
 
I'm sure it is true. 80% of Europeans choose a manual gearbox over an automatic. But both North America and Asia choose automatic as the predominant choice. And Asian are about the smallest, skinniest demographic there is. So relegating automatics to "fat, lazy Americans" isn't exactly true 😛
 
Originally posted by: thecoolnessrune
I'm sure it is true. 80% of Europeans choose a manual gearbox over an automatic. But both North America and Asia choose automatic as the predominant choice. And Asian are about the smallest, skinniest demographic there is. So relegating automatics to "fat, lazy Americans" isn't exactly true 😛

I know, I actually drive an automatic myself. :laugh: It is much less headache to drive an auto in rush hour traffic than to constantly be pushing a clutch pedal in and out. I used to drive a manual over 30 miles one way in stop and go San Diego rush hour traffic...I hated it. Loved the car but hated commuting in it.

Still, my next car will be a stick. I've been without one for too long now and I miss it.
 
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.



Honestly, what the fvck does that have to do with anything?
 
Originally posted by: JJ650
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.



Honestly, what the fvck does have to do with anything?

Just an observation. Geez...everyone is so touchy here. 😛
 
Originally posted by: JulesMaximus
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: exdeath
Differential gearing plays a big part. Automatics usually have taller gears because they can take advantage of torque multiplication from the converter. Torque multiplication can be thought of as an additional infinitely variable step-less gear reduction between the engine and transmission (engine can rev up faster than the transmission). This allows you to get away with taller gears for cruising which might otherwise be too tall for adequate acceleration by themselves.

When the converter is slipping and multiplying torque while accelerating it combines with the tall final drive gear to give the effect of a shorter gear for accelerating, but the tall gear by itself allows lower cruising RPM when the converter is 1:1.

A manual doesn't provide torque multiplication, thus a reasonable shorter final drive gear has to be chosen to allow for adequate acceleration in all gears. With a 6 speed however you can get around the whole issue by having two overdrive gears.

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals and this was due to the fact that manuals were usually economy cars compared to the automatics and since automatics have that whole power-loss thing with the transmission, they have shorter gearing to make up for that. Today, automatics are considered standard and the only people who buy cars with a manual, in the eyes of the manufacturer, are looking more for performance and less for fuel economy. This is essentially the reason why Manuals are getting slightly worse mileage than the automatics despite a Manual transmission being more efficient.

No, automatics are NOT considered standard. They are made largely for fat lazy Americans. Many cars in Europe are manual transmission, I was in Spain in 2008 and saw almost zero automatic transmission cars...and almost zero SUVs and trucks for that matter.

When I was studying abroad in England a few years ago, I saw that one of the professors who lived near campus had a Dodge Ram SRT-10 truck, man that thing looked out of place whenever I saw him driving it.

But Jules is right, I think I saw like one automatic car in maybe 3-4 months, and it was a 7 series. Most everything is manual.

I dunno where coolnessrune got his figure from but all the cars I saw in Japan/HK/Korea/India were predominantly manuals. Though it wasnt as skewed as europe was
 
Originally posted by: fleabag

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals


Originally posted by: Zenmervolt

The majority of automatics will lock the torque converter in the highest gear(s) at cruise, so there's no torque multiplication from the TC in most cases when an automatic is in its highest gear. Even if we assume that lockup is used as an ersatz "gear", the RPM difference at cruise between a fully open TC and a fully locked TC is typically only 200-300 RPM, not nearly enough to fully compensate for the differences the OP is noting.


ZV

Seems to be some confusion with the transmission gear ratios and final drive ratio at the differential.

I am referring to the final drive ratio and the torque multiplication that occurs while accelerating, not cruising.

Torque multiplication allows you to get away with a taller final drive ratio, which means you still get acceptable acceleration in lower gears, while having a nice tall low RPM/high speed gear while cruising and with the TC locked.

A car with both an AT and MT option might have 4.xx final drive gearing on the MT and 3.xx on the AT. Both will have equal acceleration performance in lower gears due to the torque multiplication from the auto able to overcome the taller final gearing, but the AT will cruise at a lower RPM assuming the highest gear in both transmissions is say, 0.80 (OD for the auto and 5th on the 5 spd).

The torque converter is locked in higher gears when cruising. In all other conditions it is unlocked and multiplying torque, which allows for taller gear ratios while achieving the same performance. The torque converter acts like a gear reduction which temporarily and artificially shortens the taller gears when acceleration is needed. However when the torque converter is locked or otherwise close to 1:1, the taller ratios that the torque multiplication allowed to be acceptable for accelerating now also allow for low RPM cruising as well.


Example for the Gen 3 Camry (have the service manuals handy on flash drive w00t), both used on the 5S-FE 2.2L 130 HP / 145 LB-FT moving the same car:

A140E 4 speed automatic:

1st -- 2.810
2nd -- 1.549
3rd -- 1.000
4th/OD -- .706
Final Drive -- 2.296

S51 5 speed manual:

1st -- 3.538
2nd -- 1.960
3rd -- 1.250
4th -- .945
5th -- .731
Final Drive -- 3.153

We can clearly see that that the automatic will provide a much lower highway cruise RPM at a given speed when both MT and AT are in their highest gear. However it also looks like the price for that is poor acceleration looking at the first gear and final drive ratios... until you factor something I didn't list yet:

A140E 4 speed automatic:

Torque converter clutch stall torque ratio -- 2.0:1 (this is multiplicative with all other ratios)

Now it would appear that the auto both accelerates better AND has better fuel economy. This is where the losses and inefficiency of the torque converter while slipping and multiplying torque factor in and even it back out again.

Example, while accelerating in 1st:

Auto: 2.0 (from torque multiplication) x 2.810 x 2.296 = 12.904 - (efficiency losses through slipping converter)
MT: 3.538 x 3.153 = 11.155

Accounting for converter losses and the fact that the 2.0:1 ratio is a perfect maximum that is neither constant nor always attained, bringing down the number for the AT a little bit, we can observe that AT is roughly equal to the MT when accelerating, if not slightly less.

Yet when the converter is locked up, cruising in highest gear:

Auto: .706 x 2.296 = 1.621
MT: .731 x 3.153 = 2.305

Engine RPM is roughly 42% higher with the MT than the AT when cruising at the same speed; meaning the MT will be at 3550 RPM when the auto is doing the same highway speed at 2500 RPM. This is approximately what OP has observed.

Note however that without torque multiplication, a 2.296 final drive gear in the MT would bog the engine and yield poor acceleration in every gear, but is acceptable on the automatic because of the action of the torque converter.

It can also be seen that the AT would have better fuel mileage for someone who does mostly highway driving, while the MT would produce better mileage for someone who does mostly stop and go city driving, where the auto performs at it's worst.

*Edit: numbers are off, I misread/typed reverse gear for diff gear, correction in progress, my manual doesn't have the A140E final drive ratio. My numbers are off but the overall concept/outcome remains similar: the AT will have a taller gear (smaller number) than the MT.
 
'92-'95 Civic Gear ratios:

D15B7 (DX/LX 4 Door)
Manual Transmissions:
3.250
1.761
1.172
0.909
0.702
Final Drive: 4.058

Automatic:
D15B7 (DX/LX 4 Door)
2.60
1.468
0.975
0.673
Final Drive: 4.333

So in the end, the 5-speed will get better highway mileage than the Automatic version AND get better city mileage as well. Proof of this can be seen on the fueleconomy.gov website.
 
Originally posted by: exdeath
Originally posted by: fleabag

Yeah but traditionally automatics had shorter gearing than manuals


Originally posted by: Zenmervolt

The majority of automatics will lock the torque converter in the highest gear(s) at cruise, so there's no torque multiplication from the TC in most cases when an automatic is in its highest gear. Even if we assume that lockup is used as an ersatz "gear", the RPM difference at cruise between a fully open TC and a fully locked TC is typically only 200-300 RPM, not nearly enough to fully compensate for the differences the OP is noting.


ZV

Seems to be some confusion with the transmission gear ratios and final drive ratio at the differential.

I am referring to the final drive ratio and the torque multiplication that occurs while accelerating, not cruising.

Torque multiplication allows you to get away with a taller final drive ratio, which means you still get acceptable acceleration in lower gears, while having a nice tall low RPM/high speed gear while cruising and with the TC locked.

A car with both an AT and MT option might have 4.xx final drive gearing on the MT and 3.xx on the AT. Both will have equal acceleration performance in lower gears due to the torque multiplication from the auto able to overcome the taller final gearing, but the AT will cruise at a lower RPM assuming the highest gear in both transmissions is say, 0.80 (OD for the auto and 5th on the 5 spd).

The torque converter is locked in higher gears when cruising. In all other conditions it is unlocked and multiplying torque, which allows for taller gear ratios while achieving the same performance. The torque converter acts like a gear reduction which temporarily and artificially shortens the taller gears when acceleration is needed. However when the torque converter is locked or otherwise close to 1:1, the taller ratios that the torque multiplication allowed to be acceptable for accelerating now also allow for low RPM cruising as well.


Example for the Gen 3 Camry (have the service manuals handy on flash drive w00t), both used on the 5S-FE 2.2L 130 HP / 145 LB-FT moving the same car:

A140E 4 speed automatic:

1st -- 2.810
2nd -- 1.549
3rd -- 1.000
4th/OD -- .706
Final Drive -- 2.296

S51 5 speed manual:

1st -- 3.538
2nd -- 1.960
3rd -- 1.250
4th -- .945
5th -- .731
Final Drive -- 3.153

We can clearly see that that the automatic will provide a much lower highway cruise RPM at a given speed when both MT and AT are in their highest gear. However it also looks like the price for that is poor acceleration looking at the first gear and final drive ratios... until you factor something I didn't list yet:

A140E 4 speed automatic:

Torque converter clutch stall torque ratio -- 2.0:1 (this is multiplicative with all other ratios)

Now it would appear that the auto both accelerates better AND has better fuel economy. This is where the losses and inefficiency of the torque converter while slipping and multiplying torque factor in and even it back out again.

Example, while accelerating in 1st:

Auto: 2.0 (from torque multiplication) x 2.810 x 2.296 = 12.904 - (efficiency losses through slipping converter)
MT: 3.538 x 3.153 = 11.155

Accounting for converter losses and the fact that the 2.0:1 ratio is a perfect maximum that is neither constant nor always attained, bringing down the number for the AT a little bit, we can observe that AT is roughly equal to the MT when accelerating, if not slightly less.

Yet when the converter is locked up, cruising in highest gear:

Auto: .706 x 2.296 = 1.621
MT: .731 x 3.153 = 2.305

Engine RPM is roughly 42% higher with the MT than the AT when cruising at the same speed; meaning the MT will be at 3550 RPM when the auto is doing the same highway speed at 2500 RPM. This is approximately what OP has observed.

Note however that without torque multiplication, a 2.296 final drive gear in the MT would bog the engine and yield poor acceleration in every gear, but is acceptable on the automatic because of the action of the torque converter.

It can also be seen that the AT would have better fuel mileage for someone who does mostly highway driving, while the MT would produce better mileage for someone who does mostly stop and go city driving, where the auto performs at it's worst.

*Edit: numbers are off, I misread/typed reverse gear for diff gear, correction in progress, my manual doesn't have the A140E final drive ratio. My numbers are off but the overall concept/outcome remains similar: the AT will have a taller gear (smaller number) than the MT.

Exactly, this is what I was observing, I was comparing 4cyl engines in general. Thanks for the info, it's helped me understand the topic much better. My next car is going to be an auto, tired of shifting in california traffic : /
 
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...
 
Originally posted by: mariok2006
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...

Just because the ENGINE is more efficient at a given RPM, it doesn't mean that it won't use more fuel. I'd find it hard to believe that the car could use less fuel at 3000rpm than at 2100rpm. BSFC really only helps when trying to find the point at which the engine produces the most power for a given amount of fuel. Here is an example:

a 50CC two stroke engine could use a pint of fuel in 5 hours of idling while a 1500cc engine could use a pint of fuel in 30 minutes of idling. This however doesn't mean that the 50cc engine is more efficient than the 1500cc, it just means that the 50cc engines consumes less fuel. So while a moped may get 60-80mpg and a prius gets 45mpg, the prius is extremely efficient compared to the moped considering that the moped only carries around 400lbs (the bike an passenger) while the prius carries like 3500-4000lbs+ [the car and passenger(s)].

BSFC is mostly of interest to hypermilers who perform DFCO (Deceleration Fuel Cutoff) because they attempt to accelerate the vehicle using the highest BSFC and then turn off the engine to coast. You won't achieve the best BSFC while cruising unless you so happen to be cruising up a high enough gradient that allows you to load the engine to that point. Again, that would only make that particular situation "as efficient as it gets" but does not mean it will use less fuel than cruising a similar length of road but with no or negative gradient.

Efficiency matters, fuel consumption matters, the key is to do well in both.
 
Originally posted by: mariok2006
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...

I kid you not, my 2010 Ford Fusion Hybrid with an electronic continously variable trans will around 1800-1900RPM going 70mph. Hell at a steady 55mph it's just a tick above 1500rpm. It was quite a change for me as my old car going 70mph would be 2600rpm.

EDIT: And seeing fleabags post above mine, I would say both my car and a prius are consuming small amounts of fuel while being very efficient(modified Atkinson cycle)

Plus my car will automatically shut the engine off once your foot is lifted off the accelerator even at 70mph thus momentarily consuming zero fuel but without having to do something crazy like turn the car off.
 
Originally posted by: fleabag
Originally posted by: mariok2006
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...

Just because the ENGINE is more efficient at a given RPM, it doesn't mean that it won't use more fuel. I'd find it hard to believe that the car could use less fuel at 3000rpm than at 2100rpm. BSFC really only helps when trying to find the point at which the engine produces the most power for a given amount of fuel. Here is an example:

a 50CC two stroke engine could use a pint of fuel in 5 hours of idling while a 1500cc engine could use a pint of fuel in 30 minutes of idling. This however doesn't mean that the 50cc engine is more efficient than the 1500cc, it just means that the 50cc engines consumes less fuel. So while a moped may get 60-80mpg and a prius gets 45mpg, the prius is extremely efficient compared to the moped considering that the moped only carries around 400lbs (the bike an passenger) while the prius carries like 3500-4000lbs+ [the car and passenger(s)].

BSFC is mostly of interest to hypermilers who perform DFCO (Deceleration Fuel Cutoff) because they attempt to accelerate the vehicle using the highest BSFC and then turn off the engine to coast. You won't achieve the best BSFC while cruising unless you so happen to be cruising up a high enough gradient that allows you to load the engine to that point. Again, that would only make that particular situation "as efficient as it gets" but does not mean it will use less fuel than cruising a similar length of road but with no or negative gradient.

Efficiency matters, fuel consumption matters, the key is to do well in both.

What you didn't consider is throttle opening. Even though the rpm is lower, if the throttle opening is greater, teh car will use more fuel. If at 3000rpm the throttle opening is less than it is at 2100rpm to maintain 70mph, the car will get better mileage at 3000rpm.

I realize that ICEs are most efficient at WOT, but like you said workin/workout doesn't mean its getting the best mileage.
 
Originally posted by: DeathBUA
Originally posted by: mariok2006
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...

Plus my car will automatically shut the engine off once your foot is lifted off the accelerator even at 70mph thus momentarily consuming zero fuel but without having to do something crazy like turn the car off.

Most if not all modern cars do this.
 
Originally posted by: mariok2006
Originally posted by: DeathBUA
Originally posted by: mariok2006
I just drove my friends 06 civic today and it did 2100rpm at 70mph! That freaked me out for a second since I'm used to 4cyl cars hovering around 3k+ at that speed. I wonder what the bfsc is at that rpm compared to 3000. I would imagine the bsfc would be better at 3000 and therefore it would get better mileage...

Plus my car will automatically shut the engine off once your foot is lifted off the accelerator even at 70mph thus momentarily consuming zero fuel but without having to do something crazy like turn the car off.

Most if not all modern cars do this.

No

Euro spec VW diesels do, but other than hybrids I dont think any other car does that. The engine physically turns off, not keeps spinning
 
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