degibson
Golden Member
Forgive the n00bish question, but I've never been particularly sound in the area of IP law. Here's the question:
Can a company own a programming language?
I can understand how a company can own proprietary software: compilers, runtimes, debuggers, etc. But if I open up a text editor and type some characters into it -- and they happen to be recognizable by that proprietary software -- do they own my source? (No)
So where is the line? In case it's not obvious, I'm thinking of Java here. What precisely makes a FOSS JVM a violation of IP law (or does it?)?
Can a company own a programming language?
I can understand how a company can own proprietary software: compilers, runtimes, debuggers, etc. But if I open up a text editor and type some characters into it -- and they happen to be recognizable by that proprietary software -- do they own my source? (No)
So where is the line? In case it's not obvious, I'm thinking of Java here. What precisely makes a FOSS JVM a violation of IP law (or does it?)?