Originally posted by: etech
Originally posted by: Fencer128
Originally posted by: Gaard
Wasn't the purpose of the doomed 2nd resolution to get approval to use force? So wouldn't that mean that the decision to use force had already been decided upon before France made the decision to veto any 2nd resolution?
Or did you mean Once that was done there was no other choice but non-UN-supported force? Which would still be a matter of debate.
I think that after the "unconditional" veto appeared (not to be confused with a potential veto for other reasons) then non-UN supported force is the meaning implied.
Andy
Andy, please do not try to interpret what I mean, the chances are, as in this case, that you will get it wrong.
The use of force or regime change is implicit in 1441. How else could it be a "final oppurtunity"?
France was aware of that when they signed 1441. They were aware of that when Iraq did not file a full and complete disclosure as required in 1441. That is why France started talking about veto, they knew that Saddam had not complied and the only alternative at that time was the use of force to remove him. Quibble all you wish.