Of...
- Thread starter edro
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highland145
Lifer
- Oct 12, 2009
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pete6032
Diamond Member
- Dec 3, 2010
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...should not be pronounced "uv".
I don't remember anyone axing you how to pronounce it.
z1ggy
Lifer
- May 17, 2008
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English is a weird language, it makes no sense.
Oval- /ˈōvəl/ which is, "oh-vul"
Oven- /ˈəvən/ which is, "uh-vun/
Over- /ˈōvər/ which is, "oh-vur/
So even words that have the same two first letters, and even the first 3 letters, aren't even pronounced the same. So.. Yeah us English speakers are all sorts of crazy. It's probably why English is so hard to learn. Something like German, even though seems daunting, has mainly one system of pronouncing words. In English there seems to be no rhyme or reason for words that are spelled almost the same to have different pronunciations. It's basically just a matter of pure memorization.
PliotronX
Diamond Member
- Oct 17, 1999
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twinrider1
Diamond Member
- Sep 28, 2003
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To...
...should not be pronounced "tuh".
That's the one that bugs me. Especially when professionals, even our President, do that. They drop the O and just sound the T.
...should not be pronounced "tuh".
That's the one that bugs me. Especially when professionals, even our President, do that. They drop the O and just sound the T.
Last edited:
slag
Lifer
- Dec 14, 2000
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z1ggy
Lifer
- May 17, 2008
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Welp, the little upside down e stands for an "uh" sound, so... if you pronounce it Uhv-en, you're technically not saying it right.
But, like most languages, English also has certain dialects/accents. I know in the northeast, some people pronounce "room" as "rum".
It makes no sense because English is basically an assimilation of many languages. It started out as largely Anglo-Saxon Germanic, was infused by French, and borrowed heavily from Latin. And it's continued to assimilate words from all other languages throughout the course of its use.
acheron
Diamond Member
- May 27, 2008
- 3,171
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WE ARE ENGLISH
YOU WILL BE ASSIMILATED
YOUR VOCABULARY AND GRAMMATICAL DISTINCTIVENESS WILL BE ADDED TO OUR OWN
(caps)
ctbaars
Golden Member
- Nov 4, 2009
- 1,565
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It's perfectly logical.
All you need to do is remember how bad the English were at defending their lands.
The Celts were around and they lived on the lands. Then the Romans came and conquered, and the Celt language took on Roman influence. Then the Vikings came and conquered, and the language took on Norse influence. Then the Saxons came and conquered, and the language took on German influence. And the French came and conquered, and the language took on French influence.
One English word came from the Germanic language, the next came from French, the next from Latin, etc. That's why it seems there are no rules.
SearchMaster
Diamond Member
- Jun 6, 2002
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destrekor
Lifer
- Nov 18, 2005
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Clearly the Oxford Dictionaries (both UK and American) and the American Heritage Dictionary disagree with you entirely.
There is variation in the sound of the opening vowel, but it is presented everywhere with the v ending sound.
Strangely, there was no discussion of pronunciation in Garner's Modern American Usage, at least not in the latest print edition. I don't have an online subscription.
There is variation in the sound of the opening vowel, but it is presented everywhere with the v ending sound.
Strangely, there was no discussion of pronunciation in Garner's Modern American Usage, at least not in the latest print edition. I don't have an online subscription.
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