Originally posted by: Nemesis 1
Viditor get your butt back here . You did read section 8 right . For those who haven't . I will post it . Now I know that viditor believes in his own mind that I can't comprehend the wording in this contract . But it really doesn't get in plainer than this. Even Viditor can't deny what it states. Well he can deny it . But its hopeless viditor.
What's your point?
Obviously the patents aren't assignable, that's very standard...but it has nothing to do with the issues raised.
Not being assignable means that AMD can't give away x86 to a 3rd party, and Intel can't give away AMD's patents.
How is this relevant at all?
Edit: Please note the part that says "without the prior written consent of the other party, which consent may be withheld at the sole discretion of such other party"
Let me try again to construct this for you...
Let's say AMD is sold.
1. The purchasing company can no longer make CPUs unless they obtain permission in writing from Intel because AMD is not allowed to transfer those rights.
2. The purchasing company is now the sole owner of all of AMD's patents as they are a large amount of AMD's assets.
3. Intel can also no longer make CPUs without the purchasing company's permission because the former agreement is now voided (it was with AMD, but AMD no longer exists or owns the patents).
What actually would probably happen is that the new company and Intel would extend the previous agreement for a year or two to include the new owner while they hammer out a more permanent solution.
Edit2: I think you're hung up on trying to call something a breach of contract.
As it says, "Any such purported assignment or transfer shall be deemed a breach of this Agreement and shall be null and void"
But selling the company doesn't mean that anyone would be stupid enough to continue manufacturing without an agreement in writing...
In other words, the act of selling doesn't imply that they will assign or transfer Intel's IP without Intel's permission.