No problem, just curious...

[Rhi]

I was wondering why a client PC will not lease an IP through a wireless AP that is directly connected to a cable modem? There is only one client, and the AP is essentially just a hub, right? So why won't the client PC lease an IP from the modem instead of being forced to use an additional router?

-Rhi

 

[Nothinman]

If the AP is really 'just a hub' it can't loan out IPs, you need a DHCP server for that. If it's got a DHCP server built in you have a problem somewhere.

 

[Rhi]

No, it has no router funcionality at all. However as a simple hub I should still ba able to lease one IP through it from the modem, no?

-Rhi

 

[Rhi]

^

 

[Tallgeese]

Make and model of AP might shed some light.
Can the AP operate in a "pure" bridge mode? If not, then that's the reason.

BTW: I am able to serve internal DHCP info just fine through an Orinoco wireless AP, operating in bridge mode.

 

[Rhi]

AHHhhhhhhhhhh. I didn't have it in bridged mode. Hmm.

Technically, why would it matter? I was getting network activity through AP to Cable modem, but PC wouldn't lease a valid IP. Like the network activity was unrecognized or something. I bought a router and have had no problems since, I was just wondering about the technical reasons this "wirelss hub" didn't act like a wired hub. I was unaware I needed to put it in "bridged mode". 🙁

Linksys WAP11

Thanks!

-Rhi

 

[Tallgeese]

Because most APs aren't technically hubs. They can either behave like routers (most default configurations) or bridges.

Routers won't pass (DHCP) broadcasts, bridges will.

 

[PicPop]

bump

 

[Rhi]

Hmmm. Well the WAP11 has not router funcionality at all, yet it seems to not pass DHCP broadcasts unless set to bridged mode. Annoying. Thank you.

-Rhi