New Proof that 1 = .999999999 Repeating

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acadia111

Banned
Mar 21, 2005
6
0
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Originally posted by: nolson1
Originally posted by: acadia11
I''m putting an end to this debate ..999999999R != 1, .999999999999R is approximately 1.

End of debate.

Semantics are important, sort of like 1 / infinity is not equal to 0, it is approximately 0.

And dependant upon the granularity of the comparison determines the outcome. Even computers work this way when comparing two numbers.

HAHA you know this guy didn't take any college math. There is no approximate about it.



Of course it's approximate.

Please let me know what number is inifinity? Better yet tell me how you can divide 1 by infinity.

1/infinity is approximately 0, and is only true when 1 / x where x is real number and x approaches infinity.

 

GTPoompt

Member
Feb 1, 2005
79
0
0
actually it's applied to all threads you post in, so you make every thread unsuccessful and unpopular. Oh well.

so are we saying .99999...8 = .999999999... = 1 as well?
 

HonkeyDonk

Diamond Member
Oct 14, 2001
4,020
0
0
Originally posted by: GTPoompt
actually it's applied to all threads you post in, so you make every thread unsuccessful and unpopular. Oh well.

so are we saying .99999...8 = .999999999... = 1 as well?

you can't have .9999...8 b/c where would you stick the 8? at the end of the .9999's right? well since the .99999....goes on forever, there's never a chacne for you to put that last 8, so this only works with repeating numbers or sets of numbers.

like .999999......

or .46464646464646464646

or .16666666666666666

at least I think.
 

Brazen

Diamond Member
Jul 14, 2000
4,259
0
0
Originally posted by: nolson1
Originally posted by: acadia11
I''m putting an end to this debate ..999999999R != 1, .999999999999R is approximately 1.

End of debate.

Semantics are important, sort of like 1 / infinity is not equal to 0, it is approximately 0.

And dependant upon the granularity of the comparison determines the outcome. Even computers work this way when comparing two numbers.

HAHA you know this guy didn't take any college math. There is no approximate about it.

Actually this guy is going more in the direction of how I've heard various college professors explain it. When you work it out with differentials, you can basically show that it "approaches" 0 so close that it can be expressed as 0.
 

aplefka

Lifer
Feb 29, 2004
12,014
2
0
Originally posted by: GTPoompt
actually it's applied to all threads you post in, so you make every thread unsuccessful and unpopular. Oh well.

so are we saying .99999...8 = .999999999... = 1 as well?

Actually, you're wrong. Since you're a nooblar I won't expect you to have seen the thread it was originally posted in, which was just another one of these.

And how could .999999...8 = .99999 repeated if you rounded it? If you round something, does it not terminate?
 

Brazen

Diamond Member
Jul 14, 2000
4,259
0
0
Originally posted by: GTPoompt
actually it's applied to all threads you post in, so you make every thread unsuccessful and unpopular. Oh well.

LOL

Good point. Aplefka provides his own mathematical proof for his own unpopularity.
 

aplefka

Lifer
Feb 29, 2004
12,014
2
0
Originally posted by: Brazen
Originally posted by: GTPoompt
actually it's applied to all threads you post in, so you make every thread unsuccessful and unpopular. Oh well.

LOL

Good point. Aplefka provides his own mathematical proof for his own unpopularity.

Yeah, because it was posted in my thread. :confused:
 

nolson1

Member
Nov 6, 2004
33
0
0
Originally posted by: acadia111
Originally posted by: nolson1
Originally posted by: acadia11
I''m putting an end to this debate ..999999999R != 1, .999999999999R is approximately 1.

End of debate.

Semantics are important, sort of like 1 / infinity is not equal to 0, it is approximately 0.

And dependant upon the granularity of the comparison determines the outcome. Even computers work this way when comparing two numbers.

HAHA you know this guy didn't take any college math. There is no approximate about it.



Of course it's approximate.

Please let me know what number is inifinity? Better yet tell me how you can divide 1 by infinity.

1/infinity is approximately 0, and is only true when 1 / x where x is real number and x approaches infinity.

1. Let me try this again. It's not approximate, if it is... what is the number between .9 repeating and 1?

2. Two other proofs that don't make you divide by infinity:
1/3 = .33333...
.3333....is the way to write 1/3 using decimals.
If you multiply both sides of the above equation by three you get
1 = .99999....

OR
Let n = .99repeating so 10n = 9.99repeating
Subtracting the first equation from the second yields:
9n = 9 since the repeating decimals subtract out
which gives us n = 1, but we know that n = .99repeating so
.99repeating = 1

3. You can set up a sum of rectangles to give you areas under curves. As that goes to infinity, you get closer to the area. So if you apply this to a triangle, are you saying a 3,4,5 triangle does not have an area of 6 just close to it?

4. If you still can't believe it, please take 20th century math.
Try looking at Cantor or someone at first. I think he did work with set theory and infinite sets. Don't remember but I thought there was something about different values of infinity with his work. I mean his work was around 1900 so there has been progress since then, but he is a good start I think.