Originally posted by: acadia111
Originally posted by: nolson1
Originally posted by: acadia11
I''m putting an end to this debate ..999999999R != 1, .999999999999R is approximately 1.
End of debate.
Semantics are important, sort of like 1 / infinity is not equal to 0, it is approximately 0.
And dependant upon the granularity of the comparison determines the outcome. Even computers work this way when comparing two numbers.
HAHA you know this guy didn't take any college math. There is no approximate about it.
Of course it's approximate.
Please let me know what number is inifinity? Better yet tell me how you can divide 1 by infinity.
1/infinity is approximately 0, and is only true when 1 / x where x is real number and x approaches infinity.
1. Let me try this again. It's not approximate, if it is... what is the number between .9 repeating and 1?
2. Two other proofs that don't make you divide by infinity:
1/3 = .33333...
.3333....is the way to write 1/3 using decimals.
If you multiply both sides of the above equation by three you get
1 = .99999....
OR
Let n = .99repeating so 10n = 9.99repeating
Subtracting the first equation from the second yields:
9n = 9 since the repeating decimals subtract out
which gives us n = 1, but we know that n = .99repeating so
.99repeating = 1
3. You can set up a sum of rectangles to give you areas under curves. As that goes to infinity, you get closer to the area. So if you apply this to a triangle, are you saying a 3,4,5 triangle does not have an area of 6 just close to it?
4. If you still can't believe it, please take 20th century math.
Try looking at Cantor or someone at first. I think he did work with set theory and infinite sets. Don't remember but I thought there was something about different values of infinity with his work. I mean his work was around 1900 so there has been progress since then, but he is a good start I think.