New Proof that 1 = .999999999 Repeating

[MAME]

Originally posted by: Bacardi151

Originally posted by: MAME

Originally posted by: ugopk
I don't think this would work.

Because if you can do it with 1 and .99..., you can do the same proof for .99 and .98 and so on...

basically saying all numbers = all numbers

you're making exactly no sense

.999...8 is not a number just like .000...1 is not a number (note the '...'s represent an INFINITE amount of numbers)

you're the one who's not making any sense, if '...' represents an infinite amount of numbers, how can you have a 1 at the end? that means the amount of numbers in between .000...1 is not infinite, and what comes after 1? do you even know what the concept of infinite is? you can't add a number to infinite, which you did by saying infinite and then putting a 1 at the end of the infinite series of #s

Are you completely retarded?

 

[TuxDave]

Originally posted by: DrPizza
Here's where your understanding from calculus is going to break down.
Sqrt(0 + sqrt(0 + sqrt(0 + sqrt(0 + ....
infinitely nested. Obviously, it = 0.
Instead, sqrt(x + sqrt(x + sqrt(x + sqrt(x + ...
same thing, except an x instead of 0.
Now, find the limit as x approaches 0. Surprise! It's not 0 as you probably think. It's 1.

Dude... that scares me. But on the other hand, does the limit exist? What happens if you have x approaching from the negative side?

 

[acadia11]

You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

 

[91TTZ]

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

Thanks for destroying capitalism, a$$#le.

 

[Schneider879]

Good times to be together.

 

[GTPoompt]

well, math teachers always hide the "truth" and you figure out the "truth" in a later math course

as for surviving calculus without knowing what I was doing? I understood calculus 100% in the scope of the class.

We were told if you get one of the indetermininate forms after evaluating the limit (A = infinity), 1^A, A^A, 0^A, 0*A, A*A,A/A, then used l'hops rule. what do you mean by just "plug in 0 and infinity?

so then is it really wrong to say the limit approaches +infinity? I figured most would understand that from what I meant from what I wrote but apparently writing on forums is harder than explaining.

Pizza are you have a doctorate in math I assume?

 

[artikk]

just stop obsessing over stupid and useless stuff

 

[91TTZ]

as for surviving calculus without knowing what I was doing? I understood calculus 100% in the scope of the class.

But do you understand it better than someone who only understands it 99.999R% in the scope of the class?

Pizza are you have a doctorate in math I assume?

No, he has his doctorate in pizzamaking. After all, he's Dr. Pizza, not Dr. Math

 

[RelaxTheMind]

I still dont see how mad you guys get just to prove a "pointless" point. Half of the people that say its not are probably just saying that to egg u on...

 

[amoeba]

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

nice trick....

unfortunately the

(a+b)(a-b) = (a-b)b

and then

a+b = b

is where it unravels.

You could have done it much quicker with

2*0 = 1* 0

2= 1

OMG!!!

 

[acadia11]

Originally posted by: amoeba

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

nice trick....

unfortunately the

(a+b)(a-b) = (a-b)b

and then

a+b = b

is where it unravels.

You could have done it much quicker with

2*0 = 1* 0

2= 1

OMG!!!

Yeah, but 0/0 is undefined, so it isn't quicker, it blatently false.

On the otherhand,

(a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

a^2 -ab + ab - b^2 = ab - b^2

a = b , so

a^2 - b^2 = aa - b^2

a^2 - b^2 = a^2 - b^2

....

so going back, (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

so, 2 = 1, OMG !!!!!! .... looks good to me, down with capitalism!!!

Who's not paying taxes with me.

 

[mchammer187]

Originally posted by: acadia11

Originally posted by: amoeba

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

nice trick....

unfortunately the

(a+b)(a-b) = (a-b)b

and then

a+b = b

is where it unravels.

You could have done it much quicker with

2*0 = 1* 0

2= 1

OMG!!!

Yeah, but 0/0 is undefined, so it isn't quicker, it blatently false.

On the otherhand,

(a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

a^2 -ab + ab - b^2 = ab - b^2

a = b , so

a^2 - b^2 = aa - b^2

a^2 - b^2 = a^2 - b^2

....

so going back, (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

so, 2 = 1, OMG !!!!!! .... looks good to me, down with capitalism!!!

Who's not paying taxes with me.

when you divide both sides of (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b by (a-b) you have to assume that a != b or you get an indeterminate for beause it is division by zero otherwise thus amoeba is correct

 

[silverpig]

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

Older than the internet, dividing by zero.

 

[acadia11]

Originally posted by: mchammer187

Originally posted by: acadia11

Originally posted by: amoeba

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

nice trick....

unfortunately the

(a+b)(a-b) = (a-b)b

and then

a+b = b

is where it unravels.

You could have done it much quicker with

2*0 = 1* 0

2= 1

OMG!!!

Yeah, but 0/0 is undefined, so it isn't quicker, it blatently false.

On the otherhand,

(a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

a^2 -ab + ab - b^2 = ab - b^2

a = b , so

a^2 - b^2 = aa - b^2

a^2 - b^2 = a^2 - b^2

....

so going back, (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

so, 2 = 1, OMG !!!!!! .... looks good to me, down with capitalism!!!

Who's not paying taxes with me.

when you divide both sides of (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b by (a-b) you have to assume that a != b or you get an indeterminate for beause it is division by zero otherwise thus amoeba is correct

I'm not saying the proof is correct.

I said 0/0 is undefined, or indeterminate more correctly, and blatently wrong.


However x,y,z... looks good to me.


On another note?

I can't assume a != b, I arleady just assumed
a = b, how can a = b and a != b, that's a contradiction.

Man, you people are really nerdy, it was much funnier when capitalism was coming to an end.

Thanks for taking the jam out of my donut.

 

[dornick]

all they're saying is that when you divide both sides by a-b, you are dividing by zero, because you said that a equals b earlier. Ergo the "proof" is invalid. (Yes I am a nerd)

 

[acadia11]

Did you see this,
"I know the proof is incorrect"


I know the proof is invalid, jeez. Didn't I say try this one!!!

I was saying it's alot harder to spot, if you don't right a+b/0 or b/0.

Secondly, I said him saying a != b, can't be said, because we already said a = b.

Finally, I said, stop being so damn nerdy it was alot more fun when capitalism doomed.

 

[mchammer187]

Originally posted by: acadia11

Originally posted by: mchammer187

Originally posted by: acadia11

Originally posted by: amoeba

Originally posted by: acadia11
You are all gay, and fcuking nerds, I got a better one for you though ... try this one

a = b

a^2 = b^2

a^2 = b * b

a^2 = a * b

a^2 - b^2 = a * b - b^2

(a + b)(a - b) = (a - b)b

a + b = b

b + b = b

2 * b = b

So,

2 = 1 .......... oh my f'cking god 2 = 1!!!!!!!



1 = 0 , so that means that everything should be free in society. since every number actually equals 0!!!!!!!

nice trick....

unfortunately the

(a+b)(a-b) = (a-b)b

and then

a+b = b

is where it unravels.

You could have done it much quicker with

2*0 = 1* 0

2= 1

OMG!!!

Yeah, but 0/0 is undefined, so it isn't quicker, it blatently false.

On the otherhand,

(a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

a^2 -ab + ab - b^2 = ab - b^2

a = b , so

a^2 - b^2 = aa - b^2

a^2 - b^2 = a^2 - b^2

....

so going back, (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b

so, 2 = 1, OMG !!!!!! .... looks good to me, down with capitalism!!!

Who's not paying taxes with me.

when you divide both sides of (a-b)(a+b) = (a-b)b by (a-b) you have to assume that a != b or you get an indeterminate for beause it is division by zero otherwise thus amoeba is correct

I'm not saying the proof is correct.

I said 0/0 is undefined, or indeterminate more correctly, and blatently wrong.


However x,y,z... looks good to me.


On another note?

I can't assume a != b, I arleady just assumed
a = b, how can a = b and a != b, that's a contradiction.

Man, you people are really nerdy, it was much funnier when capitalism was coming to an end.

Thanks for taking the jam out of my donut.

i was saying in order to divide both sides by (a-b) you must assume a != b

if you do not make that assumption than you are dividing by zero

you are contradicting yourself when you divide by (a-b)

because in order to do so you must ASSUME you are not dividing by zero otherwise the equation blows up

because you are dividing by (b-b) or (a-a) or (b-a) or (a-b) all are zero

therefore if a=b then you cannot perform the division at all because it is performed on the basis that a!=b


so I was saying either a!=b or dont do the division at all

 

[Baked]

In college you'd get a big Fvcking F if you put 1=.999...

 

[mchammer187]

Originally posted by: Baked
In college you'd get a big Fvcking F if you didn't put 1=.999...

fixed

 

[silverpig]

Originally posted by: GTPoompt
well, math teachers always hide the "truth" and you figure out the "truth" in a later math course

as for surviving calculus without knowing what I was doing? I understood calculus 100% in the scope of the class.

We were told if you get one of the indetermininate forms after evaluating the limit (A = infinity), 1^A, A^A, 0^A, 0*A, A*A,A/A, then used l'hops rule. what do you mean by just "plug in 0 and infinity?

so then is it really wrong to say the limit approaches +infinity? I figured most would understand that from what I meant from what I wrote but apparently writing on forums is harder than explaining.

Pizza are you have a doctorate in math I assume?

I believe Pizza is a math teacher, so that means at least a BS in Math.

The limit doesn't approach anything. The FUNCTION or SERIES can approach something, but the limit is a static number (if it exists).

 

[GTPoompt]

ok that makes sense. It's just hard to remember what words to use

EDIT:

lol at
But do you understand it better than someone who only understands it 99.999R% in the scope of the class?

 

[ShadowBlade]

2+2=5 when rounded properly (ie 2.4+2.4=4.8 rounds to 2+2=5)

 

[Yax]

since 1/infinity can only exist if infinity exists then the mere assumption that infinity exists would lead us to conclude that god exists since god is infinite.


Since many here do not believe in the existance of God, we'd have to conclude that infinity does not exist thus, 1/infinity can not exist and so .999... != 1

hehehe.

 

[Locut0s]

0.999... = Sum(n=1 to infinity) 9/10^n

This is a convergent geometric series. With first term 9/10 and ratio 1/10.

The sum of a convergent geometric series is a/(1-r) where a=first term and r=the ratio

So The sum of this series is 9/10/(1-1/10) = 1

 

[feelingshorter]

infinity is not a bumber, so 1 is still more than .99999999 just by a very small amount