Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
Originally posted by: Dissipate
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
Originally posted by: Dissipate
Not necessarily. Unions have been able to inflate wages on numerous occassions. Of course this causes other irregularities in the market, and a negative effect is achieved. Basically, the company just hires less workers since each worker's pay/output ratio becomes worse.
True - but by the same market theory, the union worers are still being paid what they are worth.
Ok, so if the government declares tomorrow that all workers will be paid no less than $100 an hour, they are being paid what they are worth? That's poppycock. The government cannot change equilibrium prices, only consumers can do that.
Yes, just like minimum wage laws today; if they act as a price floor, they force employers to hire only if the worker's marginal value is greater than or equal to the wage. At $100/hr, most businesses would simply close, and most that stayed open would hire a small number of staff.
Businesses are in fact much more free to respond to market conditions than are employees, as businesses can always simply close their doors.
Thus:
Changing the market structure will most likely change the equilibrium value of labour, which is not nearly as easy to pin down as some people think.
And the fallacy of:
If your wages were not over the equilibrium price for your labor then I guarantee you that the market will eventually pay you what your labor is worth.
This is not a fallacy. You perceive labor markets to be somehow magically different than markets for any other thing in the economy. This is simply false. Companies, employers and governments CANNOT set wages. Consumers and investors ultimately set the price of everything. Any deviation from these prices will produce negative externalities in the market and absolutely no net benefit will result.
Yes, this is a fallacy. His equilibrium income might be 60K under the current system, and 50K under the new one. This would not mean he was being overpaid before, which is what you're trying to suggest. Try again.
Do you have difficulty comprehending information? Governments CANNOT change equilibrium prices by edict. Equilibrium prices are set by supply & demand. The same goes for labor and everything else in the whole economy. No equilibrium price for ANYONE'S labor will change as a result of any law being passed, outside of artificial industries created by government. For instance, if the government passes a law eliminating the income tax obviously the equilibrium price for income tax attorney's would be affected, or if tomorrow all guns were outlawed gunsmiths would be earning a lot less. However, assuming that someone is not in an industry as such, government laws cannot change the equilibrium price for someone's labor. The government may force businesses to pay inflated wages, but like I said this would not be an equilibrium price, it would be an arbitrary price. What happens when the equilibrium price is not allowed to settle? Shortages, surpluses and negative externalities, plain and simple. This is econ 101.
The change in the playing field changes the value of labour, and has no merit in determining whether the current wages are fair or not, given current market conditions. As Winston says, he has been playing by the rules, and has financial commitments based on his position WRT those rules. Changing the rules has fallout effects that may (or may not) seriously affect any given individual.
You have just identified one of the major problems with government.
No, I've just identified one of the problems with the outcomes of market theory in a REAL world.
When the rules are constantly changing at the whim of bureaucrats and politicians people are harmed. Look at the tax industry for instance. There is talk of switching to a national sales tax, if that happens all those tax attorneys, CPAs and preparers are going to be out of work. Many of them have spent a good portion of their lives studying the tax code and laws, then suddenly the government changes the rules and they are out of luck. This is actually a net benefit to society as a whole, but the father with 5 children trying to put food on the table isn't going to care about that.
Not if they are halfway intelligent; they will only be out of work
as tax specialists. There are always trade-offs to be made between long-run efficiency and short-run stability. These are particularly poignant in a system where large sudden changes do not result in new equilibriums, they result in massive economic instability because people have needs and commitments that do not disappear simply because their economic situation changes. And even at that there's no way you could ever make a uniform sales tax account for all the realities of the American economy, so I suspect the talk is exactly that. You're picking and choosing again from market theory, by assuming a simple tax will automatically have better effects.
Ok, so why have Harvard economists projected that the economy would double under the Fair Tax plan in a relatively short amount of time? Do you have any idea what the compliance cost of the current tax code is? It is 15 cents on the dollar of every dollar paid. That is literally a 15% tax on all the tax revenue that is being paid right now. I happen to be a skeptic of the Fair Tax, because I think that like all things in government it would simply, over time become as Draconian as the income tax. Nonetheless, I know for a fact that if it were implemented as planned it would be a far more efficient tax system, based on comparison of compliance costs alone.
Hint: Don't argue with me as though I am an anti-market socialist zealot; for one thing, I'm not one, and for another you will keep making serious mistakes in your analysis, many of which I'm liable to notice.
I recommend a good long night with a book on externalities and efficiency before you claim that a national sales tax is the most efficient method of taxation.
I recommend another good long night with a book on market theory and how changing the rules, or holding market power, can BOTH affect the equilibrium value of any good, including labour.
Edit - irrelevent addition; you'll get to read all about it below anyway.