Music - why is 4/4 so common?

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MyThirdEye

Diamond Member
Dec 29, 2005
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4/4 is easy, and it's the basic time signature that is taught. If you really think about it, most rock musicians are good, but they're not great musicians. Danny Carey, Thomas Lang, and Buddy Rich are MUSICIANS are the finest degree.
 

Babbles

Diamond Member
Jan 4, 2001
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Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: Babbles
Originally posted by: spidey07
Another theory? Could it have anything to do that we once walked on all 4s and that natural rhythm is still there?

I wouldn't think that's likely; any evolutionary link to walking on all fours is so far removed it seems such a remote possibility that there is any sort of tie. I also am not so sure that way back when there was any sort of selective benefit to have 4/4 rhythm as some prehistoric animal. That and you can have 'rhythm' with probably any music meter.

I play the Shakuhachi, which is a Japanese bamboo flute, and their music (derived from some older Chinese music) does not have time meter such as we see in the Western world. Therefore from my limited experience with this type of music there does not seem to be any 'universal' time measurement shared with Western music.

Again, I would think that it's just very simply and straightforward to have a 4/4 meter.

Well japenese didn't ride horses or animals as far as I know. So there may be some merit to the riding an animal leading to 4 beats being so familiar. We'd have to contrast this with chinese music, india, russia, etc because I'm sure they rode animals not being constrained to a small island.

And as far as anthropology - having sex seems very natural as are a whole lot of things that our cortex isn't aware of. a couple million years of walking on all 4s vs 40K of two tells me it isn't that far removed.

Don't monkeys move their head to a beat if they hear one for a while?

So the theory goes, the samurai initially started out as mounted archers way back in the day - they rode horses. That, though, is besides the point and getting off topic (oh the irony).

If you are going to look at some sort of evolutionary tendency to favor common time or specifically this entire riding horses example I think you may way to also evaluate how long humans have had horses domesticated and if the group of people who pioneered music were descended from a culture that traditionally rode domesticated horses.

It may tie together, I honestly don't know, but I think that correlation would have to be made if you want to take that angle.

Originally posted by: spidey07

There's no argument. :) But there HAS to be an answer.

If the time signatures between eastern and western music are so different then there HAS to be a reason for that divergence. Find the reason for that and you'll find the reason why common time is so common.

Maybe divergence isn't the best word or maybe it is. But there has to be an anthropological reason for this. I can understand why in this day and age common time is so natural - we've heard it all our lives. How this came to be is really what I'm trying to figure out.

But - I believe if you give a chimp common time with the appropriate accents he will merrily follow along. If this is true then my horse idea is out the window and we'll have to go further back.

I feel that if you think that if there was some divergence that this implies there was some sort of world-wide sameness from which a divergence could have taken place. Meaning if things diverged from one another, there must have had some common ancestor, and I am not so sure in the history of the world there was any one common music meter from which things then diverged.

I think music meters are different the world over because, shockingly enough, cultures all over the world are different. I would wager Western music grew from larger choral traditions, to orchestras, and basically large groups performing together. I know with my experience in traditional Japanese music, this is just about the opposite. Typically you may have a shamisen, a koto, and a shakuhachi. That's it.
Therefore there is not a need to have some sort of very highly structured system of music.

I think the answer for this topic can probably be found in studying anthropology, and not biology.

 

spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
65,469
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Originally posted by: amjohns5
4/4 is easy, and it's the basic time signature that is taught. If you really think about it, most rock musicians are good, but they're not great musicians. Danny Carey, Thomas Lang, and Buddy Rich are MUSICIANS are the finest degree.

Think back a few hundred years or even a few thousand. Tell mozart he wasn't a great musician. It's easy because it's NATURAL. Why is it so natural and spans many centuries if not further back? Listen to tribal music from those that were never schooled or had any influence - surprise, they play in 4/4.

THAT'S what I'm looking for. why?
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
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Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: sobriquet
I had forgotten about this, but a friend of mine once wrote a paper on how the emergence of the clock affected the use and understanding of time in Western music. I never read it, so I can't say I agree with the argument, but it's an interesting one nonetheless.

There's no argument. :) But there HAS to be an answer.

If the time signatures between eastern and western music are so different then there HAS to be a reason for that divergence. Find the reason for that and you'll find the reason why common time is so common.

Maybe divergence isn't the best word or maybe it is. But there has to be an anthropological reason for this. I can understand why in this day and age common time is so natural - we've heard it all our lives. How this came to be is really what I'm trying to figure out.

But - I believe if you give a chimp common time with the appropriate accents he will merrily follow along. If this is true then my horse idea is out the window and we'll have to go further back.

Well, it's been demonstrated that music with a heavy pulse stimulates the same parts of our brain that are associated with movement. So it's really not a stretch to say that chimps can be similarly stimulated by the same sounds.

What about the simple fact that human beings have a bilateral symmetry, i.e. two arms and two legs? We can stomp left right left right, or hit things left right left right. Maybe that's where the basic understanding of duple meter came from. Of course that doesn't explain how some cultures settled on duple meter while others went for the more "complex" 5 or 7 (or 11, 13, and so on). Then again, neither does the horse theory. Back to square 1.
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
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Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: amjohns5
4/4 is easy, and it's the basic time signature that is taught. If you really think about it, most rock musicians are good, but they're not great musicians. Danny Carey, Thomas Lang, and Buddy Rich are MUSICIANS are the finest degree.

Think back a few hundred years or even a few thousand. Tell mozart he wasn't a great musician. It's easy because it's NATURAL. Why is it so natural and spans many centuries if not further back? Listen to tribal music from those that were never schooled or had any influence - surprise, they play in 4/4.

THAT'S what I'm looking for. why?

It seems to me that the Western classical music tradition, with all its notions of complexity, would be the tradition more likely to adopt a complex time signature as central. Balkan musicians, on the other hand, who have no pretense to complexity, at least in the sense that they claim their music is better because of its complexity, readily play in any number of time signatures that don't make sense to many Western musicians.

In other words, I don't buy the idea that 4/4 is just plain "natural." Even the experience of time can be culturally situated.
 

TechBoyJK

Lifer
Oct 17, 2002
16,699
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spidey, it has to do with grouping.

first you set tempo.. (bpm)

then you group sets of beats into groups, called measures. In musical situations where there are many parts, and many measures, often you have to say " go the 15th measure"

So when someone says I need a beat to last an entire measure that beat or note is called "whole note" because it takes the whole measure. If you have 4 beats in a measure, it's 4 quarter notes. With complicated music and many musicians doing different things, it's easier to find your way deep into a piece of music if the measures are consistent in length and you can say "go to the 16th measure." which would be the same as saying the 72'nd beat. (assuming each measure is 4 beats long)...

that, and 1-2-1-2-1-2, seems so sudden to repeat, 1-2-3-4 has more depth, but 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 may seem like tooo much.

on a side note.. 4/4 is relative. the first 4 is most important, as that dictates how many counts per measure.. the second four simply describes how each count is written.. if its 4, you write it as a quarter note.. if it's an 8, you write it as 8th notes. Theoretically, 4/8 and 4/4 should feel the same. It's only when you relate those counts to tempo that it matters.

1-2-3-4 is a comprimise of countability, even looping against a metronome, and ease in playability. It's easier to play a complex melody across 16 4 beat measures than having to worry about each subsequent measure being a different count and presenting a different, and sporatic sense of where the downbeat will fall.

blah
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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0
Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
spidey, it has to do with grouping.

first you set tempo.. (bpm)

then you group sets of beats into groups, called measures. In musical situations where there are many parts, and many measures, often you have to say " go the 15th measure"

So when someone says I need a beat to last an entire measure that beat or note is called "whole note" because it takes the whole measure. If you have 4 beats in a measure, it's 4 quarter notes. With complicated music and many musicians doing different things, it's easier to find your way deep into a piece of music if the measures are consistent in length and you can say "go to the 16th measure." which would be the same as saying the 72'nd beat.

that, and 1-2-1-2-1-2, seems so sudden to repeat, 1-2-3-4 has more depth, but 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 may seem like tooo much.

1-2-3-4 is a comprimise of countability, even looping against a metronome, and ease in playability. It's easier to play a complex melody across 16 4 beat measures than having to worry about each subsequent measure being a different count and presenting a different, and sporatic sense of where the downbeat will fall.

blah

Okay, so you've answered how 4/4 is easy. The original question, though, is WHY is 4/4 easy? Why isn't triple meter the more prominent? Why not quintuple? Why don't we feel 7 as being more natural?

Why are 5 and 7 so easy for Eastern European musicians? Why does a great deal of traditional Japanese music follow no meter at all?
 

Babbles

Diamond Member
Jan 4, 2001
8,253
14
81
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
spidey, it has to do with grouping.

first you set tempo.. (bpm)

then you group sets of beats into groups, called measures. In musical situations where there are many parts, and many measures, often you have to say " go the 15th measure"

So when someone says I need a beat to last an entire measure that beat or note is called "whole note" because it takes the whole measure. If you have 4 beats in a measure, it's 4 quarter notes. With complicated music and many musicians doing different things, it's easier to find your way deep into a piece of music if the measures are consistent in length and you can say "go to the 16th measure." which would be the same as saying the 72'nd beat.

that, and 1-2-1-2-1-2, seems so sudden to repeat, 1-2-3-4 has more depth, but 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 may seem like tooo much.

1-2-3-4 is a comprimise of countability, even looping against a metronome, and ease in playability. It's easier to play a complex melody across 16 4 beat measures than having to worry about each subsequent measure being a different count and presenting a different, and sporatic sense of where the downbeat will fall.

blah

Okay, so you've answered how 4/4 is easy. The original question, though, is WHY is 4/4 easy? Why isn't triple meter the more prominent? Why not quintuple? Why don't we feel 7 as being more natural?

Why are 5 and 7 so easy for Eastern European musicians? Why does a great deal of traditional Japanese music follow no meter at all?

The number 4 is a pretty easily divisible number. You can make halfs of 4 all day long.

Can't quite do the same with 5 or 7.
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
0
0
Originally posted by: Babbles
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
spidey, it has to do with grouping.

first you set tempo.. (bpm)

then you group sets of beats into groups, called measures. In musical situations where there are many parts, and many measures, often you have to say " go the 15th measure"

So when someone says I need a beat to last an entire measure that beat or note is called "whole note" because it takes the whole measure. If you have 4 beats in a measure, it's 4 quarter notes. With complicated music and many musicians doing different things, it's easier to find your way deep into a piece of music if the measures are consistent in length and you can say "go to the 16th measure." which would be the same as saying the 72'nd beat.

that, and 1-2-1-2-1-2, seems so sudden to repeat, 1-2-3-4 has more depth, but 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 may seem like tooo much.

1-2-3-4 is a comprimise of countability, even looping against a metronome, and ease in playability. It's easier to play a complex melody across 16 4 beat measures than having to worry about each subsequent measure being a different count and presenting a different, and sporatic sense of where the downbeat will fall.

blah

Okay, so you've answered how 4/4 is easy. The original question, though, is WHY is 4/4 easy? Why isn't triple meter the more prominent? Why not quintuple? Why don't we feel 7 as being more natural?

Why are 5 and 7 so easy for Eastern European musicians? Why does a great deal of traditional Japanese music follow no meter at all?

The number 4 is a pretty easily divisible number. You can make halfs of 4 all day long.

Can't quite do the same with 5 or 7.

What's your point? People outside of the Western tradition play in 5, 7, 11, 13, and so on all the time without caring how divisible it is. Why should that matter?
 

spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
65,469
5
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Originally posted by: sobriquet
What's your point? People outside of the Western tradition play in 5, 7, 11, 13, and so on all the time without caring how divisible it is. Why should that matter?

Because that just doesn't have a natural feel. So what is it about that division and why?

And don't preach the merits of eastern music, western 4/4 has taken over the world. It is natural to all humans. So why is that?

I understand that eastern "odd is good" fung shwey stuff but the east eats up the common time. Mainly because they will naturally move their body to it. The chimp or the tribesman does not have any outside influence but they still pick up the beat.

So the question remains - what lead to the domination of 4 beats?
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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0
Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: sobriquet
What's your point? People outside of the Western tradition play in 5, 7, 11, 13, and so on all the time without caring how divisible it is. Why should that matter?

Because that just doesn't have a natural feel. So what is it about that division and why?

And don't preach the merits of eastern music, western 4/4 has taken over the world. It is natural to all humans. So why is that?

I understand that eastern "odd is good" fung shwey stuff but the east eats up the common time. Mainly because they will naturally move their body to it. The chimp or the tribesman does not have any outside influence but they still pick up the beat.

So the question remains - what lead to the domination of 4 beats?

I'm not going to deny that 4 is simpler than 5 or 7 (based on the premise than an easily divisible number is more simple). I just don't believe that it's somehow more natural. Are you saying that a tribesman couldn't pick up 5? If the strongest economic and cultural force on the planet was pumping out music in 5, are you confident that no one else would follow along?
 

puffff

Platinum Member
Jun 25, 2004
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I'm guessing because 8 notes make an octave, thats why we dont see 3/3, 5/5, 6/6, etc time.
 

SacrosanctFiend

Diamond Member
Oct 2, 2004
4,269
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Because our sense of rhythm and time, which the 4-beat is the epitome of, was derived from our locomotion, and is, therefor, innate. So says Stumpf and Wundt. So, we hear the 4-beat and our natural inclination (through temporal processing) is to enjoy and move to.

Edit: grammar
 

Babbles

Diamond Member
Jan 4, 2001
8,253
14
81
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: Babbles
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
spidey, it has to do with grouping.

first you set tempo.. (bpm)

then you group sets of beats into groups, called measures. In musical situations where there are many parts, and many measures, often you have to say " go the 15th measure"

So when someone says I need a beat to last an entire measure that beat or note is called "whole note" because it takes the whole measure. If you have 4 beats in a measure, it's 4 quarter notes. With complicated music and many musicians doing different things, it's easier to find your way deep into a piece of music if the measures are consistent in length and you can say "go to the 16th measure." which would be the same as saying the 72'nd beat.

that, and 1-2-1-2-1-2, seems so sudden to repeat, 1-2-3-4 has more depth, but 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 may seem like tooo much.

1-2-3-4 is a comprimise of countability, even looping against a metronome, and ease in playability. It's easier to play a complex melody across 16 4 beat measures than having to worry about each subsequent measure being a different count and presenting a different, and sporatic sense of where the downbeat will fall.

blah

Okay, so you've answered how 4/4 is easy. The original question, though, is WHY is 4/4 easy? Why isn't triple meter the more prominent? Why not quintuple? Why don't we feel 7 as being more natural?

Why are 5 and 7 so easy for Eastern European musicians? Why does a great deal of traditional Japanese music follow no meter at all?

The number 4 is a pretty easily divisible number. You can make halfs of 4 all day long.

Can't quite do the same with 5 or 7.

What's your point? People outside of the Western tradition play in 5, 7, 11, 13, and so on all the time without caring how divisible it is. Why should that matter?

The questions, as you just stated above, is "WHY is 4/4 easy? "

If you are writing a large composition, then being able to divide the notes into nice even numbers makes sense in 'why' 4/4 is easy. Trying to write a symphony is some bizarre meter is going to be difficult (albeit very necessary at times). I sort of fail to understand how you could question "WHY is 4/4 easy."

Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: sobriquet
What's your point? People outside of the Western tradition play in 5, 7, 11, 13, and so on all the time without caring how divisible it is. Why should that matter?

Because that just doesn't have a natural feel. So what is it about that division and why?

And don't preach the merits of eastern music, western 4/4 has taken over the world. It is natural to all humans. So why is that?

I understand that eastern "odd is good" fung shwey stuff but the east eats up the common time. Mainly because they will naturally move their body to it. The chimp or the tribesman does not have any outside influence but they still pick up the beat.

So the question remains - what lead to the domination of 4 beats?

Yes 4/4 has 'taken over the world' or rather probably a better way to state it is that it is just so common (haha, get it . . . common time is common . . . anyhow) so everybody knows it.

Also you are just assuming that it is so natural to humans?

Is it?

We get bombarded with music from all over the place; people just grow up with it, but does that really mean it is natural for us?

Anyhow simple common time is just a duple beat, so when you really get down to it you got two beats. You just can't get any more simple and basic than that: one beat up, one beat down; one beat noise, one beat silence, ones and zeros. . .
Hell you got two arms, so it's just natural to beat on something taking turns with your arms. Damn, for all I know maybe just the swinging of the arms is a sort of internal metronome and things just grew up from there.




 

spidey07

No Lifer
Aug 4, 2000
65,469
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Originally posted by: sobriquet
I'm not going to deny that 4 is simpler than 5 or 7 (based on the premise than an easily divisible number is more simple). I just don't believe that it's somehow more natural. Are you saying that a tribesman couldn't pick up 5? If the strongest economic and cultural force on the planet was pumping out music in 5, are you confident that no one else would follow along?

No, what I'm saying is why do people and cultures without this influence pumping music do they still follow it?

without any cultural influence at all or even exposure to others?
 

SacrosanctFiend

Diamond Member
Oct 2, 2004
4,269
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Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: sobriquet
I'm not going to deny that 4 is simpler than 5 or 7 (based on the premise than an easily divisible number is more simple). I just don't believe that it's somehow more natural. Are you saying that a tribesman couldn't pick up 5? If the strongest economic and cultural force on the planet was pumping out music in 5, are you confident that no one else would follow along?

No, what I'm saying is why do people and cultures without this influence pumping music do they still follow it?

without any cultural influence at all or even exposure to others?

It's genetic, as I asserted above.
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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0
Originally posted by: Babbles
The questions, as you just stated above, is "WHY is 4/4 easy? "

If you are writing a large composition, then being able to divide the notes into nice even numbers makes sense in 'why' 4/4 is easy. Trying to write a symphony is some bizarre meter is going to be difficult (albeit very necessary at times). I sort of fail to understand how you could question "WHY is 4/4 easy."

Okay, then, why is 4/4 easier than 5/4? I grew up with Western classical music, with piano lessons from 4 and on, and I did my undergrad in classical music performance. Yet I have no problem switching between 3, 4, 5, 7, or anything else.
 

TechBoyJK

Lifer
Oct 17, 2002
16,699
60
91
Originally posted by: puffff
I'm guessing because 8 notes make an octave, thats why we dont see 3/3, 5/5, 6/6, etc time.

those are two totally differen things.

1. 4/4 and those other counts of 2-3-4-5-6-7-8, etc have to do with counting beats.

2. what 8 notes make an octave? only two notes make an octave. the tonic, and the octave, which is exactly 1/2 of the tonic's frequency. Yea, you can play a major scale, and the octave is 8 notes away from the tonic, but thats assuming you use a major/minor scale. A pentatonic scale only has 5 notes, not 8, and the 5th is the octave.

I think it has to do with ease of counting. 2/4/8 are almost he same. 4, is just double 2, and 8 is double of 4. When concerts where given where people would be dancing, it would be easiest for the crowd and the musicians to play something simple, and 4 is the simplest. a 2 count causes a fast recuring down beat and many measures.. Plus there isn't much rhtymic headroom with a 2 count. 4 gives you more room, keeps it simple and even, and is easy to count and keep track of. 8 just expands on 4, which is why many newer dance styles use 8 counts instead of 4.
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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Originally posted by: spidey07
Originally posted by: sobriquet
I'm not going to deny that 4 is simpler than 5 or 7 (based on the premise than an easily divisible number is more simple). I just don't believe that it's somehow more natural. Are you saying that a tribesman couldn't pick up 5? If the strongest economic and cultural force on the planet was pumping out music in 5, are you confident that no one else would follow along?

No, what I'm saying is why do people and cultures without this influence pumping music do they still follow it?

without any cultural influence at all or even exposure to others?

Maybe the question then isn't why other people get along to 4/4 but rather why Western audiences don't get along to other meters. Maybe other musical cultures facilitate the feeling of numerous different meters, while Western listeners are largely limited to 4/4 (and to an extent 3/4). If you play 4/4 for someone who can groove to anything, they'll have no problem grooving to it.
 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
the tonic, and the octave, which is exactly 1/2 of the tonic's frequency.

Going up an octave doubles frequency, going down halves it.
 

OdiN

Banned
Mar 1, 2000
16,430
3
0
Originally posted by: spidey07
Another theory? Could it have anything to do that we once walked on all 4s and that natural rhythm is still there?

Who raised you, wolves?
 

TechBoyJK

Lifer
Oct 17, 2002
16,699
60
91
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: Babbles
The questions, as you just stated above, is "WHY is 4/4 easy? "

If you are writing a large composition, then being able to divide the notes into nice even numbers makes sense in 'why' 4/4 is easy. Trying to write a symphony is some bizarre meter is going to be difficult (albeit very necessary at times). I sort of fail to understand how you could question "WHY is 4/4 easy."

Okay, then, why is 4/4 easier than 5/4? I grew up with Western classical music, with piano lessons from 4 and on, and I did my undergrad in classical music performance. Yet I have no problem switching between 3, 4, 5, 7, or anything else.

notice the "grew up with western classical music, with piano lessons, etc.."

when music is played for the masses, those which haven't really learned to count, just tap their foot, etc.. it's easiest to default to a count of 4. its even, not so abrubt as a 2 count, and so long, like an 8 count.

this is why the waltz became so popular.. it was odd, but only a 3 count, so it was easy to wrap your mind around. 1-2-3-1-2-3

 

sobriquet

Senior member
Sep 10, 2002
912
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0
Originally posted by: TechBoyJK
Originally posted by: sobriquet
Originally posted by: Babbles
The questions, as you just stated above, is "WHY is 4/4 easy? "

If you are writing a large composition, then being able to divide the notes into nice even numbers makes sense in 'why' 4/4 is easy. Trying to write a symphony is some bizarre meter is going to be difficult (albeit very necessary at times). I sort of fail to understand how you could question "WHY is 4/4 easy."

Okay, then, why is 4/4 easier than 5/4? I grew up with Western classical music, with piano lessons from 4 and on, and I did my undergrad in classical music performance. Yet I have no problem switching between 3, 4, 5, 7, or anything else.

notice the "grew up with western classical music, with piano lessons, etc.."

when music is played for the masses, those which haven't really learned to count, just tap their foot, etc.. it's easiest to default to a count of 4. its even, not so abrubt as a 2 count, and so long, like an 8 count.

this is why the waltz became so popular.. it was odd, but only a 3 count, so it was easy to wrap your mind around. 1-2-3-1-2-3

You missed my point. You're stuck on 2, 4, and 8, and I'm talking about 2, 3, 4, 5, and 7. I was trained in music that predominantly uses 2 and 4, and to a lesser extent 3. So why am I adept at music in 5 or 7? I don't know the answer, it's just always been that way.