Originally posted by: CycloWizard
In fact, what I did was directly quote the entire section in an effort to point out that the authors of the amendment said that they would ban all human cloning, but then they only really banned reproductive cloning, and only some facets of reproductive cloning at that.
False. You purposely took a portion of the initative, singled it out, and carefully separated the qualifications, definitions, and meanings of the statement. One cannot just take a piece of legislation, butcher off defining terms, and claim they are purposely misdirecting. You are the one that is doing that. It would be the same as if you quoted President Bush saying "Iraq recently sought significant quantities of uranium from Niger," while leaving off the qualifying statement that it was according to British intelligence. What's next, does everyone have to define what every word means in every senetence? "So, what does 'what' mean? What does 'next' mean? What is this 'does' word? Who do you mean by 'everyone'?"
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
If you consider my statement, which was using the amendment's own language, to be misleading, then how can you possibly claim that the amendment, which uses the same language, is not misleading?
The Initative qualified what it meant by human cloning, with
?Clone or attempt to clone a human being? means to implant in a uterus or attempt to implant in a uterus anything other than the product of fertilization of an egg of a human female by a sperm of a human male for the purpose of initiating a pregnancy that could result in the creation of a human fetus, or the birth of a human being."
You defined cloning as:
"There is no question that a blastocyst is human. Therefore, cloning blastocysts is human cloning."
You aren't using the same language as the initative. You can sit there saying you use the same phrases, despite the apparent different definitions of cloning you use versus what the initative uses. Sex to me may mean only anal or vaginal, it may not mean the same to you. Just because you use sex in a sentence, doesn't mean you have the same meaning as me. That's the entire purpose of why the initative defines its terms, so the lawyers and legislatures cannot misconstrue the statements into meaning building a billion dollar bridge is fine.
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
It's implicit in the language of the amendment, intentionally put there to blur its reality. I pointed out the possible distinction, and now I'm the one being shady?
You cannot simply point out saying they ban "human cloning" without reading the rest of initative, where they explictly define what they mean. Where is this legal precident that only one needs to read the first couple lines of a legislation, and ignore the rest of the text?
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
This section of the amendment could be revised from the current language:
"No person may clone or attempt to clone a human being."
to
"No person may clone or attempt to clone a human being for reproductive purposes."
And how do you define "reproductive purposes." That's the entire purpose of Section 6. To define terms used. And if they used your statement, guess where they would define it? Yes, Section 6!
Originally posted by: CycloWizard
It's pretty obvious to me that this is an intentional deception. The authors hope someone will read through Section 2, think it sounds pretty good, and skip Section 6 altogether. If someone skipped Section 6, they would miss the entire purpose and direction of the amendment. This is what I like to call "BS".
So let me get this straight, when you sign a contract, loan agreement, or mortgage and simply don't read the entire agreement, its the writer of the contract's fault? That's absurd logic. "Boy I didn't read that section that said I had to pay my loans back, too bad for the bank."
This isn't something like Georgia's stickers about evolution, where they failed to qualify what they meant by evolution as a theory. Missouri is doing the opposite, they are purposely defining it as such.