These statements: "When faithful people do not respond to reason, it is a misuse of faith."
"When faithful people do not respond to reason, they are being consistent with the above definition of faith."
Are consistent with each other. One statements involves the use of faith, one involves the definition of faith itself. Not responding to reason is consistent with the definition of faith, but it is a misuse of faith if we say that faith should not be involved in cases that can be reasoned. The use or utility of faith is not present in the definition of faith itself. When it is appropriate to use faith is not present in the definition of faith. Your attack that faithful people do not respond to reason is therefore an attack not on faith itself, but faith's use as a guard against reasoning. You have not shown explicitly that "firm belief in something for which there is no proof" itself is wrong. This discussion has degenerated into a debate over the uses of faith in armed conflict in the middle east, etc, not over the idea of faith itself - not over the idea that a person can have firm belief in something for which there is no proof. I think when you said that since there is no proof, there's no reason to believe was the only attack you made on faith itself. I am wondering if you have any further attacks on faith itself, rather than its uses, such as that of being used as a shield against reasoning.