This is just a great thread. This, along with graysky's O/C thread for Intel CPU's, has been so helpful. The comments and links folks have posted in response to graysky's efforts have been just as helpful. I've read and re-read them many times and used graysky's basic formula to O/C my own rig. But as much as I try to understand all this (and google and google) I still have some questions that I can't find answers for - at least that I can make sense of. For instance:
Is it a fact, that in real-world applications (and gaming) it is preferrable to to sync memory and FSB at 1:1 on an Intel C2D platform?
If the answer is yes (and my understanding is that it is yes), why would I plug anything faster than good performance ram spec'd at DDR2- 800 (4-4-4-12) into my board?
Example:
E6750 - x8 multiplier - 333mhz x 8 = 2.66ghz stock speed.
Air-cooled
1:1 ratio
Increase DDR2 from 400 to 450 (12.5% O/C - 4-4-4-12 maintained and doable on good Ram)
FSB increases - 400 x 8 (multiplier) = 3600 or 3.6GHZ O/C (35% increase in FSB)
3.6GHz is a pretty healthy O/C on air (mandating an aftermarket HSF)
Why would I want to plug PC-1066 memory into an Intel board if PC-800, running stock @ 400 will yield an immediate O/C to 3.2GHz, and will permit an O/C to 3.6Ghz with a reasonable 12.5% O/C on the memory?
Asked another way, wouldn't the use of PC-1066 necessitate running the memory underclocked, at 450 x 8 = 3.6GHz, versus stock value of 533? I mean, 533 x 8 = 4.26GHz, and that just isn't within the realm of possibility with these CPUs. Or is it?
So again, if syncing memory with FSB is desirable - real world - with Intel's CPUs/chipsets, why is there a market for PC-1066 and beyond? Latencies are better at PC-800 anyway, aren't they?
Someone help me to understand this, would you?
Thanks in advance and regards,