Math help

RESmonkey

Diamond Member
May 6, 2007
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Integrate this, please: (e^(-x))cosx dx

I tried using integration by parts, aka uv - (integration of v)du but process keeps repeating itself (from cos to sine, and then back agian, etc.)

 

Parasitic

Diamond Member
Aug 17, 2002
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integral of exp(ax) cos(bx) dx = exp(ax) *(a cos bx + b sin bx)/(a^2+b^2)
a= -1
b= 1
so
the integral is exp(-x)*(-cos x+ sin x)/2.

Why? Because I said so. Also it's equation #332 on p.175 of Mathematics Handbook for Science and Engineering, 5th ed. by Rade and Westergren, Springer-Verlag publishing.

Moral of this lesson: get yourself a math handbook.
 

JohnCU

Banned
Dec 9, 2000
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of course the integration keeps repeating. do it until you get back to the original integral, then set it equal to whatever you have so far and solve that way.
 

RESmonkey

Diamond Member
May 6, 2007
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^Whaa?!??!!?

Did you just pull some Calculus 7 and a half on me?

Sorry, But I <emphasized-italics>fail[/]</emphasized-italics> to understand that :(
 

Parasitic

Diamond Member
Aug 17, 2002
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Originally posted by: RESmonkey
^Whaa?!??!!?

Did you just pull some Calculus 7 and a half on me?

Sorry, But I fail to understand that :(

Didn't I just post the solution up ahead?
Use your integral table. There's one in every Calculus book. Maybe not as extensive but can get you a head start.

BTW you have much to learn about italising, young Skywalker.
 

JohnCU

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Dec 9, 2000
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Originally posted by: RESmonkey
^Whaa?!??!!?

Did you just pull some Calculus 7 and a half on me?

Sorry, But I <emphasized-italics>fail</emphasized-italics> to understand that :(

dude, this is calc II stuff. do an integration by parts. you get like sin and something. hold all that. do another integration by parts (on the sin integral). you get a really long string if you are keeping up with it. then you get back what you started with. subtract the new repetition of the original equation to the other side, you'll be able to pull out a constant, divide both sides and get an answer.
 

RESmonkey

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May 6, 2007
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I did that and got this:

(original integration thing) = (Original integration thing) + e^(-x)*cosx

I subtract over the original, and get :

0 = e^(-x) * cosx

What does that mean?
 

JohnCU

Banned
Dec 9, 2000
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do this:

int(e^-x*cosxdx) = e^-x*sinx+int(e^-x*sinxdx)

=> int(e^-x*cosxdx) = e^-x*sinx+[-e^-x*cosx-int(e^-x*cosxdx)]

=> 2*int(e^-x*cosxdx) = e^-x*sinx - e^-x*cosx

=> int(e^-x*cosxdx) = (1/2)*e^-x*sinx - (1/2)e^-x*cosx
 

Parasitic

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Aug 17, 2002
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Originally posted by: Fenixgoon
or do a laplace transform.. mmmm, laplace transform

Shhh you're scaring the calc newbie!
Plus that wouldn't make the problem easier.
 

Fenixgoon

Lifer
Jun 30, 2003
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Originally posted by: Parasitic
Originally posted by: Fenixgoon
or do a laplace transform.. mmmm, laplace transform

Shhh you're scaring the calc newbie!
Plus that wouldn't make the problem easier.

trying to think.. what would that be?

(-1/s) * 1/(s^+1) ?

probably more trouble than it's worth for this problem, you're right. so much better for solving diff eq's.. or at least the "textbook" ones.
 

chuckywang

Lifer
Jan 12, 2004
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Originally posted by: JohnCU
of course the integration keeps repeating. do it until you get back to the original integral, then set it equal to whatever you have so far and solve that way.

Yep, pretty much.
 

frostedflakes

Diamond Member
Mar 1, 2005
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Yup, it's a recursive (I think that's what they're called) integral. You end up with some stuff minus the original integral being equal to the original integral. You then add the original integral to both sides so you have the stuff you've obtained by parts equal to 2x the original integral. Then divide both sides by two.

Sounds like you get it but if not let me know and I can try to work it out on paper and post up a scan. For me it makes stuff easier to understand when I can see the whole thing worked out and can see step by step what's going on.