<< no way dude, it would be 1 in (49!) - (43!) which ends out in being 44 x 45 x 46 x 47 x 48 x 49
think of it in terms of common sense:
first number is 1 in 49, so we take 49
second number is 1 in 48 (number can't be picked twice) so we take 48
third is 1 in 47
fourth is 1 in 46
fifth is 1 in 45
sixth is 1 in 44
multiply 44 x 45 x 46 x 47 x 48 x 49 to get our big ol odds of impossibility >>
WRONG... the math you're doing is the probability of getting all 6 numbers in the exact same order as they're drawn. the probability of getting 6 out of the 49 numbers where order doesn't matter is exactly what Format C: and theneuromancer said.... in its simplest form ---> 1 in ((49*48*47*46*45*44) / (6*5*4*3*2*1)) = 1 in 13983816
and if you STILL don't believe us, check out this link LOTTERY FORMULAS
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