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LOTR question

jst0ney

Platinum Member
I've read the books and I was watching the first movie tonight and I ran accross a question that I couldn't figure out.

I know that he is Isildur's heir. And that the High Seat of Gondor was left in care of the Stewards. Why did the kings leave in the first place? Maybe Tolkien dosn't say in the LOTR. Has anyone read the middle earh history series?
 
there were several kings after isildur, but eventually there was a king who had no heir, at least in gondor, so stewards took over.

Araghorn was a descendent of the Northern kingdom lineage, which were rightful heirs, but those kingdoms were lost and the people scattered to the winds.

At least that's how i remember it. (not from the movie, form the books, but I'm not sure if it was LOTR or the Simarillon.)





 
Originally posted by: Tom
there were several kings after isildur, but eventually there was a king who had no heir, at least in gondor, so stewards took over.

Araghorn was a descendent of the Northern kingdom lineage, which were rightful heirs, but those kingdoms were lost and the people scattered to the winds.

At least that's how i remember it. (not from the movie, form the books, but I'm not sure if it was LOTR or the Simarillon.)


^ Sparked my memory. You right. Thanks.
 
Originally posted by: Tom
there were several kings after isildur, but eventually there was a king who had no heir, at least in gondor, so stewards took over.

Araghorn was a descendent of the Northern kingdom lineage, which were rightful heirs, but those kingdoms were lost and the people scattered to the winds.

At least that's how i remember it. (not from the movie, form the books, but I'm not sure if it was LOTR or the Simarillon.)

Hmmm Northern Kindom you say? I might be related to him...
 
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