"Let's Play Pretend!"

bamacre

Lifer
Jul 1, 2004
21,029
2
81
http://www.lewrockwell.com/schiff/schiff13.html

When elementary school kids want to escape the confines of their circumstances they pretend to be pirates, princesses, and Jedi knights. Now, with the relaxation of "mark to market" valuation rules announced yesterday by the accounting trade's self-regulatory body, our bankrupt financial institutions can escape their own reality by pretending to be solvent. The unraveling of our fairytale economy over the last few months has not yet convinced us that the time has come to put away childish things. The applause that greeted the news yesterday on Wall Street is a clear sign that we still have some growing up to do.

The imaginative conceit that lies behind the accounting change is that the toxic assets polluting bank balance sheets are not really toxic at all. They are in fact highly valuable assets that for some irrational reason no one wants to buy.

Using the "mark to market" accounting method, mortgage-backed securities were valued relative to the latest prices fetched by the sale of similar assets on the open market. Currently, those bonds are being sold at deep discounts to their original value. By "marking" their unsold bonds down to those prices, the insolvency of our financial institutions had been laid bare. The new accounting changes will allow the nervous owners to assign more "appropriate" (i.e. higher) values. Problem solved.

It is important to note that the Financial Accounting Standards Board made their rule modifications only after intense pressure had been applied by Washington and Wall Street. In their heart of hearts, I can't imagine that there are too many bean counters happy with the outcome.

The banks and the government have argued that the assets should be valued based solely on current cash flow. Most mortgages, after all, are not delinquent. Therefore, a few bad apples should not spoil the whole cart, and those that are not yet delinquent should be valued at par. This method assumes we have no ability to look into the future and make assumptions about what is likely to happen, which is presumably what the market is already doing by valuing the assets lower than the banks wish.

All kinds of bonds (corporate, government and municipal, etc.) that are not in default frequently trade at discounts. In fact, the reason that agencies such as Moody's and Standard and Poor's rate bonds is to assess the probability of default. The higher that probability, the lower the value placed on the bonds, regardless of their current cash flow.

For example, GM bonds that mature 10 years from now currently trade for only 8 to 10 cents on the dollar, despite the fact that GM is current on all interest payments. The 90% discount reflects investor awareness that GM will likely default long before the bonds mature. By the new logic, financial institutions with GM bonds on their balance sheets should be able to ignore the market and value these bonds at par.

Some argue that the comparison is invalid because GM's bonds are liquid while mortgage-backed securities are not. However, if sellers of GM bonds were holding out for 70 or 80 cents on the dollar, those bonds would be illiquid too. The reason GM bonds are trading is that sellers are realistic.

The same should apply to bonds backed by mortgages. To assume that a 30-year, $500,000 mortgage on a house that has declined in value to $300,000 has a high probability of remaining current to maturity is ridiculous. The borrower could lose his job, his ARM might reset higher, or he may simply tire of paying an expensive mortgage for a house that is unlikely to be sold at a profit. Any bond investor with half a brain will factor in these probabilities and look for deep discounts. The only way to accurately assess a real present value is to let the market discover the price.

Despite the pleas from bankers and politicians, mortgages are not plagued by a lack of liquidity but a lack of value. If sellers would be more negotiable, there would be plenty of liquidity. Who knows, at the right price I might even buy a few. The problem is that putting a market price on these assets would render most financial institutions insolvent, which is precisely why they do not want to let that happen.

Simply pretending that all these mortgages will be repaid does not solve the underlying problems. It may keep some banks alive longer, but when they ultimately do fail, the losses will be that much greater. In the meantime, solvent institutions are deprived of capital as more funds are funneled into insolvent "too big to fail" institutions ? hiding their toxic assets behind rosy assumptions and phony marks.

Going from the sublime to the completely ridiculous, in a speech at the just-concluded G20 summit in London, President Obama urged Americans not to let their fears crimp their spending. It would be unwise, he argued, for Americans to let the fear of job loss, lack of savings, unpaid bills, credit card debt or student loans deter them from making major purchases. According to the president, "we must spend now as an investment for the future." So in this land of imagination (where subprime mortgages are valued at par), instead of saving for the future, we must spend for the future.

I guess Ben Franklin had it wrong too ? apparently a penny spent is a penny earned.


Like I have been saying all along, we aren't rebuilding a solid, more stable economy. All we are doing is trying to sweep the mess under a rug. Sorry, but there's only so much room under the rug, and eventually we'll have an even bigger mess to clean. It will only be more painful the longer we put off doing what is necessary.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
lol. So prices on bonds are only affected by defaults. They aren't affected by the interest rate yield curve, convexity, duration, inflation estimates, market appetite, relative value of the bonds compared to other companies, market liquidity, greed/fear and irrationality.

Nope, *JUST* defaults.

No wonder you fucking simpletons latched onto this article, it fits your basic MO.
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
348
0
0
Schiff did not say bonds were valued against default rates, he said they were valued against the probability of future default, which infers every contributing factor (towards that probability) you've listed. Stop embarrassing yourself.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Schiff did not say bonds were valued against default rates, he said they were valued against the probability of future default, which infers every contributing factor (towards that probability) you've listed. Stop embarrassing yourself.

Why don't you go fuck yourself, because that's about all you're capable of here. Circle jerking off your fellow libertopians. Your stupid response is about as lame as anything Schiff or the clowns above could put together, the simpleton perspective is a joke, only played out by your idiotic post. But alas, I will, again, refute your trash.

Future cashflows are weighed against many factors, not just probability of default.

The term structure of interest rates has nothing to do with default, nor does convexity and duration, those are all factors of how interest rate structures (such as risk-free rates) affect the actual cashflows of the bonds and discounting them back to PV, not a single specific factor includes default assumptions. Inflation estimates has nothing to do with defaults, since it is independent.

Market appetite FOR a bond can influence the price. However, only if it is for/against the bond. What if the market disfavors one bond (thus decreasing the demand, increasing the price) in favor of another bond? What if solar power bonds are the "new thing" and auto manufacturer bonds are not the "new thing"? Prices of solar power bonds goes up (yield goes down) and the opposite occurs for auto bonds.

How is that an indication of default? It isn't, it is an indication the market wants one good over another. That isn't default, it is simple market movements towards one investment over another.

What happens if everybody is afraid of everything and won't buy bonds? What if the market disappears? does that mean default? No, it means that people just won't buy anything right now.

You see, default is *ONE* factor, not all. Schiff's simpleton viewpoint, combined with your evangilism and the rest of your merry band of fools, causes yet more irrationality and stupidity. But after all, that's what the Libertopian viewpoint is and that is why you'll never be more than the 3% fringe fools.
 

MikeMike

Lifer
Feb 6, 2000
45,885
66
91
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Schiff did not say bonds were valued against default rates, he said they were valued against the probability of future default, which infers every contributing factor (towards that probability) you've listed. Stop embarrassing yourself.

Why don't you go fuck yourself, because that's about all you're capable of here. Circle jerking off your fellow libertopians. Your stupid response is about as lame as anything Schiff or the clowns above could put together, the simpleton perspective is a joke, only played out by your idiotic post. But alas, I will, again, refute your trash.

Future cashflows are weighed against many factors, not just probability of default.

The term structure of interest rates has nothing to do with default, nor does convexity and duration, those are all factors of how interest rate structures (such as risk-free rates) affect the actual cashflows of the bonds and discounting them back to PV, not a single specific factor includes default assumptions. Inflation estimates has nothing to do with defaults, since it is independent.

Market appetite FOR a bond can influence the price. However, only if it is for/against the bond. What if the market disfavors one bond (thus decreasing the demand, increasing the price) in favor of another bond? What if solar power bonds are the "new thing" and auto manufacturer bonds are not the "new thing"? Prices of solar power bonds goes up (yield goes down) and the opposite occurs for auto bonds.

How is that an indication of default? It isn't, it is an indication the market wants one good over another. That isn't default, it is simple market movements towards one investment over another.

What happens if everybody is afraid of everything and won't buy bonds? What if the market disappears? does that mean default? No, it means that people just won't buy anything right now.

You see, default is *ONE* factor, not all. Schiff's simpleton viewpoint, combined with your evangilism and the rest of your merry band of fools, causes yet more irrationality and stupidity. But after all, that's what the Libertopian viewpoint is and that is why you'll never be more than the 3% fringe fools.

I would like to see you banned as personal attacks are not allowed... enjoy the vacation
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: MIKEMIKE
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Schiff did not say bonds were valued against default rates, he said they were valued against the probability of future default, which infers every contributing factor (towards that probability) you've listed. Stop embarrassing yourself.

Why don't you go fuck yourself, because that's about all you're capable of here. Circle jerking off your fellow libertopians. Your stupid response is about as lame as anything Schiff or the clowns above could put together, the simpleton perspective is a joke, only played out by your idiotic post. But alas, I will, again, refute your trash.

Future cashflows are weighed against many factors, not just probability of default.

The term structure of interest rates has nothing to do with default, nor does convexity and duration, those are all factors of how interest rate structures (such as risk-free rates) affect the actual cashflows of the bonds and discounting them back to PV, not a single specific factor includes default assumptions. Inflation estimates has nothing to do with defaults, since it is independent.

Market appetite FOR a bond can influence the price. However, only if it is for/against the bond. What if the market disfavors one bond (thus decreasing the demand, increasing the price) in favor of another bond? What if solar power bonds are the "new thing" and auto manufacturer bonds are not the "new thing"? Prices of solar power bonds goes up (yield goes down) and the opposite occurs for auto bonds.

How is that an indication of default? It isn't, it is an indication the market wants one good over another. That isn't default, it is simple market movements towards one investment over another.

What happens if everybody is afraid of everything and won't buy bonds? What if the market disappears? does that mean default? No, it means that people just won't buy anything right now.

You see, default is *ONE* factor, not all. Schiff's simpleton viewpoint, combined with your evangilism and the rest of your merry band of fools, causes yet more irrationality and stupidity. But after all, that's what the Libertopian viewpoint is and that is why you'll never be more than the 3% fringe fools.

I would like to see you banned as personal attacks are not allowed... enjoy the vacation

My frustration is evident in the post because time and again bamacre, BansheeX, and PCSurgeon come into threads, throw one-liners around without providing backup, data, any logic, or any reasoning at all. They do this ad nauseum, then once refuted by people like me, Evan, JS80, or any other number of informed people, they run to another thread, or post again in some lame-ass one-liner, then exit the thread.

They add absolutely no content, discussion, or logic, nothing. Look at BansheeX's post, all it does is say I am wrong. Why? how? Where? When? What?

Nothing.

This is the MO of people like him and it really pisses me off that they get away with it time and again. You don't add anything either, just a threat. Great, another one.

Thanks for the input into the thread though.

If mods have problems with my posts, they can bring it to me. Otherwise you're another sideline bully sitting on the outside egging the action on.
 

bamacre

Lifer
Jul 1, 2004
21,029
2
81
I think LK's just mad because he got called out. So he went on a tantrum of "go fuck yourself" and "libertopians." His first post in this thread is straw man, but is anyone surprised? The whole "libertopian" thing is nothing but straw man, and ironically, it is Keynesian Econ that seems to be based on the theory that with enough tinkering, inflating, deflating, intervening, laws and regulations, they can have some kind of utopian economy. Not working very well though. Sure Austrian depends on people acting rationally, but Keynes depends on government acting rationally. If that isn't a joke, I don't know what is.

I don't blame these guys for being mad though. Practically everything they learned in school and whatnot, all they have studied for and memorized, is all bring proven wrong with this economic disaster. I guess if I were in their shoes, I wouldn't want to admit to anything either, not even to myself.
 

Sacrilege

Senior member
Sep 6, 2007
647
0
0
Originally posted by: MIKEMIKE
Originally posted by: LegendKiller
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Schiff did not say bonds were valued against default rates, he said they were valued against the probability of future default, which infers every contributing factor (towards that probability) you've listed. Stop embarrassing yourself.

Why don't you go fuck yourself, because that's about all you're capable of here. Circle jerking off your fellow libertopians. Your stupid response is about as lame as anything Schiff or the clowns above could put together, the simpleton perspective is a joke, only played out by your idiotic post. But alas, I will, again, refute your trash.

Future cashflows are weighed against many factors, not just probability of default.

The term structure of interest rates has nothing to do with default, nor does convexity and duration, those are all factors of how interest rate structures (such as risk-free rates) affect the actual cashflows of the bonds and discounting them back to PV, not a single specific factor includes default assumptions. Inflation estimates has nothing to do with defaults, since it is independent.

Market appetite FOR a bond can influence the price. However, only if it is for/against the bond. What if the market disfavors one bond (thus decreasing the demand, increasing the price) in favor of another bond? What if solar power bonds are the "new thing" and auto manufacturer bonds are not the "new thing"? Prices of solar power bonds goes up (yield goes down) and the opposite occurs for auto bonds.

How is that an indication of default? It isn't, it is an indication the market wants one good over another. That isn't default, it is simple market movements towards one investment over another.

What happens if everybody is afraid of everything and won't buy bonds? What if the market disappears? does that mean default? No, it means that people just won't buy anything right now.

You see, default is *ONE* factor, not all. Schiff's simpleton viewpoint, combined with your evangilism and the rest of your merry band of fools, causes yet more irrationality and stupidity. But after all, that's what the Libertopian viewpoint is and that is why you'll never be more than the 3% fringe fools.

I would like to see you banned as personal attacks are not allowed... enjoy the vacation

I agree that the civility in this forum needs to be improved, dramatically.
 

First

Lifer
Jun 3, 2002
10,518
271
136
Old news, Schiff has long been debunked, as has his adherence to Austrian economics (here and here).

And actually LK, I think these guys are more entertaining than anyone else. Their silence in every thread they get beat down on says more than enough. As long as posters keep disproving their layman garbage and belittling them it's all good.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: bamacre
I think LK's just mad because he got called out. So he went on a tantrum of "go fuck yourself" and "libertopians." His first post in this thread is straw man, but is anyone surprised? The whole "libertopian" thing is nothing but straw man, and ironically, it is Keynesian Econ that seems to be based on the theory that with enough tinkering, inflating, deflating, intervening, laws and regulations, they can have some kind of utopian economy. Not working very well though. Sure Austrian depends on people acting rationally, but Keynes depends on government acting rationally. If that isn't a joke, I don't know what is.

I don't blame these guys for being mad though. Practically everything they learned in school and whatnot, all they have studied for and memorized, is all bring proven wrong with this economic disaster. I guess if I were in their shoes, I wouldn't want to admit to anything either, not even to myself.

Why don't you answer my post then, instead of countering the poster? Ohhh wait, that's because you know NOTHING about how bonds are priced! You're even worse than BansheeX, at least he attempted to combine an attack against me with some lame-ass refutation of my post (he failed since he doesn't know bond math either, but that's OK, he's taken care of).

Here's a nice tip for you. Go read Fabozzi's book, like I did during my CFA studies. Then, once you pass the CFA exams, all on the first try, perhaps you'll be smart enough to discuss the term structure of interest rates, convexity, duration, and preferred habitation theory or other theories on asset pricing. Then, go work in the bond market for a few years (like I have) and learn how things really work. Until then, you're nothing but an uneducated person trying to sound cool.

You just chew Schiff's cud and regurgitate for yourself a few more times instead of chewing your own grass. It's the way of the YouTube generation. Learning is "hard" so why do it at all.
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
348
0
0
There are only two things that can happen when you make a loan, LK: it gets paid back or it doesn't. A bond's value is thus discounted solely against the probability of default. There are a variety of risks which could make default more likely, and consumers will look at those to assess the amount they're willing to trade, thereby setting the price at which the asset is liquid. Mark to market is a standard accounting practice and most accurately reflects current value. It was a simple statement and concept, your fevered academic ranting isn't relevant criticism here, but since it's your sworn duty to poop on any thread mentioning Schiff or Paul, I forgive you.
 

Genx87

Lifer
Apr 8, 2002
41,091
513
126
Relaxing market valuation rules?!?!?!? Sounds like deregulation?????

I thought we were going to tighten up the rules to keep this shit from happening again?
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: BansheeX
There are only two things that can happen when you make a loan, LK: it gets paid back or it doesn't. A bond's value is thus discounted solely against the probability of default. There are a variety of risks which could make default more likely, and consumers will look at those to assess the amount they're willing to trade, thereby setting the price at which the asset is liquid. Mark to market is a standard accounting practice and most accurately reflects current value. It was a simple statement and concept, your fevered academic ranting isn't relevant criticism here, but since it's your sworn duty to poop on any thread mentioning Schiff or Paul, I forgive you.

On the day the loan is born, this is mostly true, because it is created according to the prevailing market conditions.

From the moment this happens however, the price of a bond is also reflective of it's terms of payment, compared to all current bonds created before and since that time. SO when current interest rates rise, the value of old bonds falls, because you can have a new one with a higher return on the same face value. All the purchaser cares about is the quality of the bond, and its return, so if the return on a new bond were to increase, the value of a similar, existing bond should fall.

Edit for over-simplifications that made this wrong.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: BansheeX
There are only two things that can happen when you make a loan, LK: it gets paid back or it doesn't. A bond's value is thus discounted solely against the probability of default. There are a variety of risks which could make default more likely, and consumers will look at those to assess the amount they're willing to trade, thereby setting the price at which the asset is liquid. Mark to market is a standard accounting practice and most accurately reflects current value. It was a simple statement and concept, your fevered academic ranting isn't relevant criticism here, but since it's your sworn duty to poop on any thread mentioning Schiff or Paul, I forgive you.

ROFL, you're such a tool that you don't even realize the trash you spew.

Bonds get discounted all of the time according to the term structure of interest rates compared to the cashflows of the bond. If interest rates and the term structure is *exactly* the same at *ALL TIMES* during the life of the bond, then the price of the bond would be at par. However, the chances of that happening are nil.

Consider the *FACT* that bonds that yield higher interest rates, in a lower interest rate environment, for the market and desire of the coupon, trade at above par. Does this now mean that the chances the company will default are less than 0%?

Fuck no, it means that the PV of the bond's cashflow is greater than the original 100 par value.

So, for example, if a $100 bond's cashflows yielded 10% per year, for 10 years, with a bullet payment at maturity and current risk- free interest rates are 2% greater than the rate when the bond was priced (lets say it priced at 10% rates, now rates are 12%, liquidity, risk, and other premiums stay *EXACTLY* the same), then the PV of the bond would be...


10/(1+12%)^1 + 10/(1+12%)^2....110/(1+12%)^n, n being the term of the bond. This bond would price below par (since rates went up compared to the original discount rate)

Now, let's say that the risk-free rate + spread was always constant, originally priced...PV would be this...

10/(1+10%)^1 + 10/(1+10%)^2....110/(1+10%)^n


Now let's say that rates went down...

10/(1+5%)^1 + 10/(1+5%)^2....110/(1+5%)^n, bond trades above par.


Now' let's say that the bond trades as if there was a default...

10/(1+10%)^1 + 10/(1+10%)^2....55/(1+10%)^n

Now, you see, that we estimate that after a default, we'll get 50% recoveries with a 100% likelihood of default.

Let's say we assume 50% default with 50% severity.

That would mean...

10/(1+10%)^1 + 10/(1+10%)^2....82.5/(1+10%)^n

But let's combine the two...

10/(1+15%)^1 + 10/(1+15%)^2....82.5/(1+15%)^n

Intreresting, no? Sure, default CAN be priced in, but it isn't the only factor, as you say.


Let's say that the bond's cashflows are different compared to the yield curve. If the bullet payment occurs at odd times, then the discount rate may be different, causing the cashflows to be different.

You do know what duration is, right? Ohh fuck no, you don't, but I'll explain it to you.

Duration is the measurement of a bond's price differential given the differential in interest rates. Thus, if interest rates go up 1%, does the bond's price go down more than 1%, or less than 1%?

It all depends on how the cashflows are structured.


What about convexity? It is a measurement of how a bond's cashflows alter the price the price of the bond given the interest rate environment and the cashflows. If a bond's price fuctuates higher with more smaller movements in rates, it is a very convexed bond, if not, it isn't very convex.

Now, lets say that telecom bonds are more favored than auto manufacturer bonds, thus the price for telecom bonds goes up (yield goes down) and prices for auto bonds goes down (yield goes up, implied discount rate is higher). Is that default?

No.

It is simple preference of the market, not default likelihood.

There are many theories in the bond market as to how bond rates are favored (or not), preferred habitat, term structure, and others, are just samples. Preferred habitat shows that during movements of favor of bonds, terms, and rates, certain habitats of the prior 3 traits may be more favorable than others. If it is more favorable, it is more desire, and the price is higher (yield is lower). If it is less favored, price is lower (yield is higher). Preferred habitats have been shown to change quite rapidly, depending on the current structure of investors.

Given that many funds cannot partake in high-yield assets, if a bond becomes less favored (rates go up), mutual funds may have requirements to dump the bond. Since it isn't a preferred yield, the downward pressure can become more severe.

As far as mark-to-bullshit, what happens if there is no market for a certain bond? Should we merely trade it at the discount rate anybody who wants to buy, will buy it at?

What if the only people who will buy it discount the cashflows at 50%?

10/(1+50%)^1 + 10/(1+50%)^2....110/(1+50%)^n

Wow, that bond is way below par!

Who says that the bond's 50% yield is just default? Well, of course it isn't! It is liquidity premium, risk-free yield, and risk premium.

Right now, I know many AAA bonds that have a very low likelihood of defaulting that were priced at S+60bps before, but are now pricing at S+10%. Why? Because the liquidity in that area is low.

Why is it low? Because people can buy other bonds they prefer at a little lower yield, but they like them better because they know the bonds better. Preferred habitat.



Ohhh, I know you like to deride this as all hooey-pooey, but bond math has been around for hundreds, if not thousands, of years. It is a market that is far larger than equities, and one that is grounded in quite a bit of science. It is also one you don't have one fucking clue about, but like to dismiss out of hand because it's easy, since learning is "hard".

Bond math isn't "acedemic ranting", it is market practice. The CFA charter isn't an acedemic study, per se, it is an application of real-world study for real world application. Something which you have no idea about.


I know that you'll take this long, well thought-out, and learned post and just trash it with non-witty one-liners (ohhhh..."Academic ranting!", how witty!). It's what a cowardwardly, ignorant, slack-jacked knuckle-dragger does when he has no idea how to counter reality.

But I'd love for you to prove me wrong. Please, entertain us with a nice discourse on bond math. People here may actually learn something from somebody other than me, evan, or JS80, or a relatively small group of others.
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
348
0
0
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
On the day the loan is born, this is mostly true, because it is created according to the prevailing market conditions.

From the moment this happens however, the price of a bond is also reflective of it's terms of payment, compared to all current bonds created before and since that time. SO when current interest rates rise, the value of old bonds falls, because you can have a new one with a higher return on the same face value. All the purchaser cares about is the quality of the bond, and its return, so if the return on a new bond were to increase, the value of a similar, existing bond should fall.

Edit for over-simplifications that made this wrong.

Right, but the yield itself is meaningless, and a higher rate does not necessarily mean higher compensation relative to default risk.

Originally posted by: LegendKillerAs far as mark-to-bullshit, what happens if there is no market for a certain bond?

The assets currently on bank balance sheets are perfectly marketable, just not at the price they're asking for.
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
9,859
1
81
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
On the day the loan is born, this is mostly true, because it is created according to the prevailing market conditions.

From the moment this happens however, the price of a bond is also reflective of it's terms of payment, compared to all current bonds created before and since that time. SO when current interest rates rise, the value of old bonds falls, because you can have a new one with a higher return on the same face value. All the purchaser cares about is the quality of the bond, and its return, so if the return on a new bond were to increase, the value of a similar, existing bond should fall.

Edit for over-simplifications that made this wrong.

Right, but the yield itself is meaningless, and a higher rate does not necessarily mean higher compensation relative to default risk.

But rate changes in the present affect the value of bonds created in the past - defaults aren't the only consideration.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: BansheeX
Originally posted by: 3chordcharlie
On the day the loan is born, this is mostly true, because it is created according to the prevailing market conditions.

From the moment this happens however, the price of a bond is also reflective of it's terms of payment, compared to all current bonds created before and since that time. SO when current interest rates rise, the value of old bonds falls, because you can have a new one with a higher return on the same face value. All the purchaser cares about is the quality of the bond, and its return, so if the return on a new bond were to increase, the value of a similar, existing bond should fall.

Edit for over-simplifications that made this wrong.

Right, but the yield itself is meaningless, and a higher rate does not necessarily mean higher compensation relative to default risk.

The yield is far from meaningless. The rate at which the cashflows are discounted is immensely important, especially for the principal repayments. The further out the principal repayment and the higher the yield curve, the greater the duration and more effect higher rates have re: convexity.

Default risk is but one factor in the yield of a bond. In your ignorance, you forget all of the other factors that change after a bond is created.

Take a look at US Treasuries. You guys run around saying the end is near, yet prices for treasuries are going up. Why? Isn't default risk greater? Ohh, they are going up because people STILL want them, more.

Isn't that preferred habitat?
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
348
0
0
The yield is far from meaningless.

It's meaningless by itself, it has to be weighed against the default risk. If I offer you a 100% yield on $XXX, and you loan it to me, and I don't pay you back, what did it matter that the yield was so much higher relative to other loans you could have made?

But rate changes in the present affect the value of bonds created in the past - defaults aren't the only consideration.

Who's raising rates, though? If the treasury market doesn't raise rates again, you can be assured that foreigners will stop buying our debt in increasingly greater quantities. You can't just keep them low and print the difference, in a hyperinflationary environment, who would buy any bond when the currency in which it is valued is losing relative value to products faster than the nominal yield can offset it?
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: BansheeX
The yield is far from meaningless.

It's meaningless by itself, it has to be weighed against the default risk. If I offer you a 100% yield on $XXX, and you loan it to me, and I don't pay you back, what did it matter that the yield was so much higher relative to other loans you could have made?

LOL, so you're forgetting underwriting and everything else, not to mention portfolio theory.

Naturally, a loan has to be priced relative to the risks, but nobody can fight against a 100% default immediately. That's a ridiculous comparison.

You say it is the only premium, I say it is but one of many.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
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Originally posted by: BansheeX
The yield is far from meaningless.

It's meaningless by itself, it has to be weighed against the default risk. If I offer you a 100% yield on $XXX, and you loan it to me, and I don't pay you back, what did it matter that the yield was so much higher relative to other loans you could have made?

But rate changes in the present affect the value of bonds created in the past - defaults aren't the only consideration.

Who's raising rates, though? If the treasury market doesn't raise rates again, you can be assured that foreigners will stop buying our debt at some point. In a hyperinflationary environment, who would buy any bond when the currency in which it is valued is losing relative value to products faster than the nominal yield can offset it?

The rates by which treasuries are discounted are implied in the prices on the secondary. Primary prices will have to be raised, but first you'll see people balk at pricing, which hasn't happened en masse.

You would buy the debt at the rate at which you think everything fits in. That includes shifting the risk-free-rate of return to inflationary adjustments, then PV'ing the cashflows.

Let's flip this another way.

Let's say that I have two bonds, both which I *KNOW* will pay 100%. Yet, one bond has become depressed in price because the liquidity premium has gone up (people just don't want to buy into that area), mainly because they are buying in other sectors. That's an arbitrage opportunity for me, is it not?

Efficient markets say that arb opportunities cannot exist, but they can and do. Why? Because people are irrational, which is why M2M accounting can be bad in a stressed environment.
 

3chordcharlie

Diamond Member
Mar 30, 2004
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Originally posted by: BansheeX
The yield is far from meaningless.

It's meaningless by itself, it has to be weighed against the default risk. If I offer you a 100% yield on $XXX, and you loan it to me, and I don't pay you back, what did it matter that the yield was so much higher relative to other loans you could have made?

But rate changes in the present affect the value of bonds created in the past - defaults aren't the only consideration.

Who's raising rates, though? If the treasury market doesn't raise rates again, you can be assured that foreigners will stop buying our debt in increasingly greater quantities. You can't just keep them low and print the difference, in a hyperinflationary environment, who would buy any bond when the currency in which it is valued is losing relative value to products faster than the nominal yield can offset it?

That has absolutely nothing to do with the topic at hand.

If the treasury raises rates, what happens to the value of existing bonds?

If expected inflation increases, what happens to the value of existing bonds?

I'm not an expert on bonds, and I'm not pretending to be, but even I can answer these questions.
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
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That's a ridiculous comparison.

It's not ridiculous, it's using hyperbole to point out the obvious.

Curious, were you criticizing mark-to-market at the height of the boom when it looked like you were profiting? How convenient that you are now a staunch proponent of imaginary assessments when you're stuck holding the bag after the bets went bad. Even the unwitting sheeple can see through this.
 

LegendKiller

Lifer
Mar 5, 2001
18,256
68
86
Originally posted by: BansheeX
That's a ridiculous comparison.

It's not ridiculous, it's using hyperbole to point out the obvious.

Curious, were you criticizing mark-to-market at the height of the boom when it looked like you were profiting? How convenient that you are now a staunch proponent of imaginary assessments when you're stuck holding the bag after the bets went bad.

No, it's ridiculous because the difference there is underwriting. If you defaulted 100% without a single cashflow, that is the fault of underwriting, not a nature of pricing.

I never thought M2M was a good idea.
 

BansheeX

Senior member
Sep 10, 2007
348
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If expected inflation increases, what happens to the value of existing bonds?

They lose value because the old nominal yield becomes overwhelmed by depreciation. But what's the difference between a debtor not paying and paying counterfeit? Inflation from government debtors is akin to private default, it's two sides of the same coin. Clearly, if that were to happen, it exposes the fact that interest rates at the time were not sufficiently calculating the future risk of default/inflation. How could all that lending at a centrally fixed 1% possibly result in anything less? Everything that our government borrowed from foreign savers via bond sales was being spent on imports and domestic goods and services. How do you repay a loan that way unless you (a) borrow more or (b) counterfeit the repayment? If a loan is enabled by forgoing immediate consumption of a certain amount of present goods, the repaid loan should be capable of buying even more goods, otherwise the loan would be of no greater benefit than immediate consumption. Higher rates or hyperinflation was inevitable. Which is exactly why the bond market right now is a massive bubble, because the effects of quantitative easing will soon make themselves known and point out how idiotic it was to be purchasing treasuries at these rates.