Less vram on pre-OCd cards?

Brent1970

Junior Member
Nov 23, 2011
18
0
0
Hey guys, something I've always wondered was why manufacturers such as EVGA will sell you a, say, GTX 570 with 2560mb ram on it unoverclocked but if you want them to pre-OC it for you, they cut the amount of vram in half? Why would they do that? If its considered a highend card and is overclocked, why would you ever consider LESS ram than a non-overclocked card?

It makes no sense.
 

cmdrdredd

Lifer
Dec 12, 2001
27,052
357
126
Can you link to an example? GTX 670 is 2GB standard and their overclocked cards are still 2GB but they offer a 4GB overclocked model too.
 

cmdrdredd

Lifer
Dec 12, 2001
27,052
357
126
The HD cards have HDMI ports. The standard GTX 570 has 1280MB of memory and they are simply offering a card that has 2560MB. It has nothing to do with giving less with overclocked cards. They are simply offering an option for more memory if someone feels they need it.

Something you will see from EVGA is they have too many models.

A standard reference model, one that is overclocked, one that has a water block, one with a backplate, one with more memory, a heavily binned classified version that can clock higher (also costs too much).
 

Smoblikat

Diamond Member
Nov 19, 2011
5,184
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