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Learned something AMAZING today

Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say? I must agree with that wholeheartedly.
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say, and I must agree with that wholeheartedly.

And how does that work? You have to restrict the set you are choosing from somehow, as we have no idea how many primes there are... and the number of primes decreases dramatically as we keep counting.

I have doubts about this formula... could you tell us how you came about it? (That is, what was shown to you)
 
Originally posted by: MacBaine
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say, and I must agree with that wholeheartedly.

And how does that work? You have to restrict the set you are choosing from somehow, as we have no idea how many primes there are... and the number of primes decreases dramatically as we keep counting.

I have doubts about this formula... could you tell us how you came about it? (That is, what was shown to you)

No idea how it works out, but you can search around for this..
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RelativelyPrime.html
 
Originally posted by: MacBaine
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say, and I must agree with that wholeheartedly.

And how does that work? You have to restrict the set you are choosing from somehow, as we have no idea how many primes there are... and the number of primes decreases dramatically as we keep counting.

I have doubts about this formula... could you tell us how you came about it? (That is, what was shown to you)

given the set of all natural numbers, there's infinite primes. Euclid proves this. It's considered the oldest proof ever recorded
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: MacBaine
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say, and I must agree with that wholeheartedly.

And how does that work? You have to restrict the set you are choosing from somehow, as we have no idea how many primes there are... and the number of primes decreases dramatically as we keep counting.

I have doubts about this formula... could you tell us how you came about it? (That is, what was shown to you)

No idea how it works out, but you can search around for this..
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RelativelyPrime.html

your link says:

6
_______

pi^2 * H
 
Originally posted by: MAME
Originally posted by: Syringer
Originally posted by: MacBaine
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say, and I must agree with that wholeheartedly.

And how does that work? You have to restrict the set you are choosing from somehow, as we have no idea how many primes there are... and the number of primes decreases dramatically as we keep counting.

I have doubts about this formula... could you tell us how you came about it? (That is, what was shown to you)

No idea how it works out, but you can search around for this..
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RelativelyPrime.html

your link says:

6
_______

pi^2 * H


I believe he was talking about integers, meaning his forumla is correct.

EDIT: or at least that he wrote down the write formula (regardless of whether it's correct or not. I tend to trust mathworld though).
 
Originally posted by: Syringer
Some background: two integers are considered coprime if there exists no common factors between them except for 1 and -1.

With that out of the way then, say you have two integers picked completely at random. At RANDOM, as in, not the opposite of random.

Now, the probability then, that these two numbers are a coprime of one another is...of ALL things...

6/PI^2

Wow you say? I must agree with that wholeheartedly.


i wanna see you write out the proof for that...
 
I'm not surprised by that though... it seems that e, ln, and pi come up often in unexpected places. My mind has been dulled to surprising results in math. It's incredible to see how inter-related seemingly unrelated concepts are.

Heck, who'd have even believed something as simple as Cos(x) = x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! - x^7/7! + ...
if they hadn't learned how to prove that result in calculus. Or the lovely e^(pi*i) - 1 = 0, relating 5 of the most common numbers in mathematics.

However, I'm curious where that formula came from.
 
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