s0me0nesmind1
Lifer
- Nov 8, 2012
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That kind of wording is always there in a settlement. It's part of the deal because the accuser wants that wording to absolve them of any future accusations that they fabricated it (even in cases that may have been fabricated). Same as when a class action lawsuit ends with a settlement agreement where the defendant admits no fault or wrong doing.
Wut? Why would someone admit that the other didn't give consent as a standard protocol? That doesn't sound right to me.....
Either way, personally, I was just kind of playing devil's advocate of sorts. I haven't even mentioned which side I'm on here - the only thing I've done is brought up the topic because I don't see the point of having this thread in P&N without some sort of debatable topic... Otherwise, why make one here vs the one in OT?
Personally I find with the whole "MeToo (tm)" movement and everything I'm much more probable to believe Kobe than a random person that is clearly more interested in money.