Wouldn't the gifts have come from Sterling's half of the estate? In which case why would the wife have a claim on those gifts?
I don't understand this either unless it was after the divorce was filed and a judge ordered the assets frozen or something.
What if he went to a casino and lost $100K, can she sue the casino for her "share" of the money? Does this only apply to gifts to ones mistress, what about Christmas and birthday gifts? What about kids from a previous marriage/partner, can you retake their gifts?
What if the mistress sold the gifts to pay rent or whatever, should her wages be garnished? She made absolutely no vows whatsoever so I don't see how she should be held responsible for the guy breaking his. Hell, men are forced to pay child support for a child that isn't theirs in a lot of states, a two decade (at least) financial burden under threat of being jailed no less. Not only can the man not recoup what he has already spent on another mans child he is forced to continue supporting it even in cases where the child is living with its natural father but a wife can get legally given gifts back from her husbands side piece???
Unless there are serious other factors at play, this is an absolute horrible precedent to set. Can you appeal in family court or is this set in stone?