Originally posted by: kylebisme
Originally posted by: Common Courtesy
Originally posted by: Phokus
Originally posted by: Common Courtesy
Originally posted by: kylebisme
Except most of the land Israel controls wasn't purchased, and much of it was taken by force. Not that I expect such facts to sway your opinion in any way.
From whom was it taken by force - not the Palestinians
Did you get this crap from some Evangelical/Zionist pamphlet or something?
How about the real world.
Who controlled the West bank after '48 until the Israelis controlled it?
When did Israel get control?
Why was control obtained?
Jordan's attempt to annex the West Bank was never legitimate, just as Israel's colonization of it isn't. We've been though this before, but you keep presenting the same tied arguments. Or rather, you don't even actually present them, let alone attempt to substantiate them, only elude to what in fact is nothing more than hot air. Regardless, here in reality,
around a third of Israeli settlements in the West Bank are built on land owned by Palestinian individuals, taken under force of occupation. Furthermore,
back in '47-'48 Zionist militias and terrorist groups depopulated hundreds of villages. . So yes, I am talking about many square miles of land Israel has taken from Palestinians by force.
Originally posted by: Common Courtesy
The '67 war boundaries is used by the Arab nations/world because that is the only conflict that they can pretend to act as the injured party.
In all the others, the Arabs clearly attacked first and rolled into Israeli territory. Yet the UN was unwilling to condemn those incursions.
Egypt was given back the Sinai (lost in earlier battles) in exchange for peace.
Jordan released official control of the West Bank (peace and Palestinian headaches).
Golan Heights were lost by Syria in conflict.
I have tried to get you to attempt to substantiate your argument here before, but you didn't care to put the work in. So here is a summery to start from:
'48, the ethnic cleansing mentioned above was taking place on both sides of the UN partition plan for months before the Arab states sent their armies in.
'56 Israel with British and French backing parachuted into the Sinai to take the Suez Canal.
'67 Israel bombed Egypt, then Jordan and Syria.
'73 Egypt and Syria attacked first, but that was fought on occupied territory.
Now, where are you getting "Arabs clearly attacked first and rolled into Israeli territory" in any of this?