Originally posted by: notfred
Originally posted by: CallTheFBI
Originally posted by: notfred
Originally posted by: CallTheFBI
Originally posted by: notfred
f(x) = x^2;
g(x) = x^4;
the limit as x->infinity of f(x) is infinity. The limit as x->infinity of g(x) is infinity. However, note that g(x) is always greater than f(x), so how can they both have the same limit?
g(x) approaches a larger infinity than f(x) does. This can happen because infinity isn't a number, but more of an abstract concept of open-endedness.
What? A larger infinity? I just thought that one of them gets there a LOT faster but they are both the same infinity. Anyways, I've been flipping through my textbook to no avail, it doesn't say anything about one infinity being larger than another.
Are you denying that x^4 is always greater than x^2? If x^4 gets to infinity faster than x^2 does, can you tell me the value of x when x^4 equals infinity, and show that x^2=infinity occurs at a higher x value?
It's probably in your calculus book somewhere
Yes I am denying that X^4 is always greater than X^2. For the values of 0, 1 and infinity that statement is false. Not to mention the values between -1 and 1.
ok, not all x values, but x values anywhere remotely close to infinity, meaning: they have an absolute value greater than 1.
Infinity is not a number, you cannot compute infinity to the 4th power, or infinity squared. Like I said, show me the x value when x^4 = infinity, or when x^2 equals infinity, and show that x^4 equals infinity before x^2 does.