Originally posted by: Narse
Originally posted by: AvesPKS
See, I'm confused. I have a buddy who works for GE, and he's salaried. To him, this means that if he wants to take off early one day when there's no work, that's fine. But if there's work to be done past quitting time, you stay until the work's done. Basically, that you work to the job, not the clock.
When I worked for the government, we got paid hourly, and filled out time cards (actually the secretary did it for all of us, regardless of whether we came in on time or not). You could get comp time or overtime (although overtime is rare) by working more than 40 hours a week, though.
So, if you're salaried and get overtime...how does that work?![]()
Did you read azazyel's post?
From site...
Salary for Workweek Exceeding 40 Hours: A fixed salary for a regular workweek longer than 40 hours does not discharge FLSA statutory obligations. For example, an employee may be hired to work a 45 hour workweek for a weekly salary of $300. In this instance the regular rate is obtained by dividing the $300 straight-time salary by 45 hours, resulting in a regular rate of $6.67. The employee is then due additional overtime computed by multiplying the 5 overtime hours by one-half the regular rate of pay ($3.335 x 5 = $16.68).
Overtime Pay May Not Be Waived: The overtime requirement may not be waived by agreement between the employer and employees. An agreement that only 8 hours a day or only 40 hours a week will be counted as working time also fails the test of FLSA compliance. An announcement by the employer that no overtime work will be permitted, or that overtime work will not be paid for unless authorized in advance, also will not impair the employee's right to compensation for compensable overtime hours that are worked.
Yeah, I read his post, but I'm still confused. Basically, even as a salaried employee you can't be forced to work more than 40 hours a week without receiving overtime compensation...right?
