So, even when there are only 2 doors left, there's a 1/3 chance you picked right and a 2/3 you picked wrong.
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
So, even when there are only 2 doors left, there's a 1/3 chance you picked right and a 2/3 you picked wrong.
The key word here is picked. I agree with your statement. However, you have another opportunity to pick, and obly two doors to choose between.
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
why would the first door you pick all of a sudden have a higher percentage of being right? It wouldn't.
Originally posted by: TallBill
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
So, even when there are only 2 doors left, there's a 1/3 chance you picked right and a 2/3 you picked wrong.
The key word here is picked. I agree with your statement. However, you have another opportunity to pick, and obly two doors to choose between.
Wrong again.
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
why would the first door you pick all of a sudden have a higher percentage of being right? It wouldn't.
you're right - it wouldn't, based upon the original selection. Now, however, you have a new selection to make, and only two equally-weighted options to choose from.
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
why would the first door you pick all of a sudden have a higher percentage of being right? It wouldn't.
you're right - it wouldn't, based upon the original selection. Now, however, you have a new selection to make, and only two equally-weighted options to choose from.
Originally posted by: conjur
1/3 - right
1/3 - wrong
1/3 - wrong
One of the 1/3 is made known which leaves (2) 1/3 choices
there's a 1/3 chance the remaining unpicked door is right and there's a 1/3 chance the door you picked is right.
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
why would the first door you pick all of a sudden have a higher percentage of being right? It wouldn't.
you're right - it wouldn't, based upon the original selection. Now, however, you have a new selection to make, and only two equally-weighted options to choose from.
How can they be equally weighted? It's not a completely new, independent event. It's an event based on previous actions... that the host eliminated some doors for you. That's where your problem is... you think prior information doesn't affect current event, but it does.
It is a completely new event! There are two doors, and one of them has the prize.
I think what is confusing here is that there are people looking at this is the wrong context. I *think* people are trying to predict which of the last two doors you are going to choose between {i]from the beginning[/i]. I am dtermining the probability of which door you will be choosing after the host has already eliminated 98 of the 100 (or 1 of the 3). Heck, he could eliminate 4x10^5475984398579848 for all I care - if there are still two doors left, only one of them can have the prize, and they each have equal probability of having it.
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: Moralpanic
why would the first door you pick all of a sudden have a higher percentage of being right? It wouldn't.
you're right - it wouldn't, based upon the original selection. Now, however, you have a new selection to make, and only two equally-weighted options to choose from.
How can they be equally weighted? It's not a completely new, independent event. It's an event based on previous actions... that the host eliminated some doors for you. That's where your problem is... you think prior information doesn't affect current event, but it does.
It is a completely new event! There are two doors, and one of them has the prize.
I think what is confusing here is that there are people looking at this is the wrong context. I *think* people are trying to predict which of the last two doors you are going to choose between {i]from the beginning[/i]. I am dtermining the probability of which door you will be choosing after the host has already eliminated 98 of the 100 (or 1 of the 3). Heck, he could eliminate 4x10^5475984398579848 for all I care - if there are still two doors left, only one of them can have the prize, and they each have equal probability of having it.
Originally posted by: Syringer
Yup, really interesting stuff.
Although I think the last time this was posted it went on to about 300 posts or so..
Originally posted by: fuzzy bee
Originally posted by: conjur
1/3 - right
1/3 - wrong
1/3 - wrong
One of the 1/3 is made known which leaves (2) 1/3 choices
there's a 1/3 chance the remaining unpicked door is right and there's a 1/3 chance the door you picked is right.
Where is the third third (it's repeating day!) coming from? What door are you using to apply it to?
If you have 2 doors, and one of them is going to have the prize behind it, and youknow that it is either door #1 or door #2, i don't see where you would have any benefit of choosing one over the other.
Originally posted by: deftron
Proof there is no "existing data"
3 doors
2 people
You pick door #1
Other person picks #2
Host shows door #3 is empty
If you both switch doors, you'd both have "2/3 chance" .. making it 4/3 total (impossible)
It's 50/50
Originally posted by: conjur
Seems to be a bit of semantics. I still see the remaining, unchosen door as having the same, original odds (1/100 or 1/3...depending on # of original doors).
Originally posted by: PipBoy
This problem blew my mind! And then it blew it again when I finally understood!!