Integral Help

MrCodeDude

Lifer
Jun 23, 2001
13,674
1
76
Find the volumes of the solids obtained by rotatiing the region bounded by the curves y = x and y = x^2 about the following lines

a) the x-axis
b) the y-axis
c) y = 2

I really don't get this stuff, so I need help all the way back to square one.

I attempted the first two, got them both wrong, so I figured I'll ask ATOT before I even try the third.

(a) Over the X-Axis (using the disc method)

pi * integral [x^2 - x]^2 from 0 to 1

What's wrong with this setup?

(b)Over the Y-Axis (using the shell method)
2pi * integral [ (x^2 - x)*(x) ] from 0 to 1

What's wrong with this setup?

Thanks a lot in advance. I don't know how I'd be passing half my classes if I didn't have AT :)
 

PowerMacG5

Diamond Member
Apr 14, 2002
7,701
0
0
For (a), the formula is:
pi*int(f(x)^2-g(x)^2)dx from a to b, so for you it's:
pi*int((x^2)^2-x^2)dx from 0 to 1
so it becomes:
pi*int(x^4-x^2)dx from 0 to 1 which I will allow you to solve

and for b, just reverse the x and x^2 so you get:
2*pi*int(x*(x-x^2))dx from 0 to 1.

This is because up until 1, x is greater than x^2.
 

MrCodeDude

Lifer
Jun 23, 2001
13,674
1
76
Originally posted by: Marauder911
For (a), the formula is:
pi*int(f(x)^2-g(x)^2)dx from a to b, so for you it's:
pi*int((x^2)^2-x^2)dx from 0 to 1
Why do you square them individually?
 

PowerMacG5

Diamond Member
Apr 14, 2002
7,701
0
0
Originally posted by: MrCodeDude
Originally posted by: Marauder911
For (a), the formula is:
pi*int(f(x)^2-g(x)^2)dx from a to b, so for you it's:
pi*int((x^2)^2-x^2)dx from 0 to 1
Why do you square them individually?
Because you aren't talking about disks. You are using washers, and the area of the washer isn't Pi*(f(x)-g(x))^2, it is Pi*(f(x)^2-g(x)^2).

Also look at my edit to the previous post, and you will see your error in your solution for (b).
 

MrCodeDude

Lifer
Jun 23, 2001
13,674
1
76
Originally posted by: Marauder911
Originally posted by: MrCodeDude
Originally posted by: Marauder911
For (a), the formula is:
pi*int(f(x)^2-g(x)^2)dx from a to b, so for you it's:
pi*int((x^2)^2-x^2)dx from 0 to 1
Why do you square them individually?
Because you aren't talking about disks. You are using washers, and the area of the washer isn't Pi*(f(x)-g(x))^2, it is Pi*(f(x)^2-g(x)^2).

Also look at my edit to the previous post, and you will see your error in your solution for (b).
Ahh, thanks :)
 

PowerMacG5

Diamond Member
Apr 14, 2002
7,701
0
0
Originally posted by: MrCodeDude
Originally posted by: Marauder911
Originally posted by: MrCodeDude
Originally posted by: Marauder911
For (a), the formula is:
pi*int(f(x)^2-g(x)^2)dx from a to b, so for you it's:
pi*int((x^2)^2-x^2)dx from 0 to 1
Why do you square them individually?
Because you aren't talking about disks. You are using washers, and the area of the washer isn't Pi*(f(x)-g(x))^2, it is Pi*(f(x)^2-g(x)^2).

Also look at my edit to the previous post, and you will see your error in your solution for (b).
Ahh, thanks :)
No problem. AT helps me sometimes when I need integration help, so I can't think of any other way to thank the community other than also helping someone else.
 

PowerMacG5

Diamond Member
Apr 14, 2002
7,701
0
0
Originally posted by: MrCodeDude
Thanks a lot :)

You've been a great help :) :heart:
No problem. Like I said in my previous post, AT gives me help sometimes with integration, and there is no way better to thank a community then also helping someone else.