Whoozyerdaddy
Lifer
- Jun 27, 2005
- 19,216
- 1
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Originally posted by: spunkz
Originally posted by: Whoozyerdaddy
Originally posted by: smack Down
Originally posted by: Whoozyerdaddy
Originally posted by: feralkid
Originally posted by: EatSpam
Originally posted by: feralkid
Originally posted by: EatSpam
Tell PBS that the Pilgrims didn't invade a sovereign nation.
Tell all of the Native Americans that that makes genocide O.K.
Genocide? I don't think colonizing = genocide. I'd like to see your sources that say that American settlers set out to exterminate the Native American population of America.
And if you're talking about wars, don't bother. The Native American groups fought amongst each other all of the time. It wasn't exactly peaceful on the plains.
Well, I'm sure Native America is convinced.
That's a whole different argument from the OP.
Fact: The pilgrims weren't illegal immigrants. They broke no law concerning immigration to come over here.
Now you can argue as to the morality of their actions once they got here. You can argue that their offspring stole land from other people and claimed it as their own. You can argue that this country was built on genocide and slavery. But what is not for debate is the status of the first white settlers being "illegal immigrants". They were not.
Are you an expert on each tibes laws? You don't think that the tribes had laws saying that the land between two landmarks was for the exclusive use of the tribe?
Actually I am.
With respect to the specific tribe in question their immigration code (sec. 12, paragraph 4, line 6) does indeed make reference to specific lands and defines those lands as being in the collective posession of said tribe. It goes on further (sec 12, paragraph 5) to specifically state that any other native tribe entering such lands will have a valid passport or other type of approved visa. It further states that if a member of another native tribe does not have said identification then application can be made via the statute contained in sec. 13, paragraph 1.
While the immigration laws were specific toward other native populations they did not mention anything as to the status of evil, marauding, genocidial, white-devil europeans seeking assylum from religious persecution. Therefore... the pilgrims were not, in fact, in violation of any specific immigration law.
I hope we can now put this issue to rest.
before you rest your case, would u indulge me and other interested parties as to your reasoning for describing all the european settlers as evil, marauding, and genocidal. it would seem from my prior knowledge of the subject that most of the land obtained by the early colonists was done so through legitimate purchase. i don't doubt that evil men arrived on the shores of America, but i imagine they were the ones seeking land and money, not religious freedom.
But of course! Sarcasm.
