Originally posted by: IAteYourMother
Originally posted by: BigJ
Originally posted by: edprush
Originally posted by: Bryophyte
I bought it for my dad and myself.
I hear that too but I'm too dumb to know how to properly refute that one....
Why is "myself" correct or incorrect?
would you say, "I bought it for me" or "I bought it for myself"
I think we need to make the distinction between what is technically correct and what is in common use.
In all likelyhood, we---and by "we", I really mean "I"---would say "myself" alone but also "my dad and me". I think that "my dad and myself" and "me" alone would both be correct but awkward.
The root of the problem is that we use "me" to express the objective case of "I", and we use "myself" to express the reflexive use of "I", but objectivity and reflexivity are not mutually exclusive. For example, in this case, in Latin, you can express "for me/myself" with the dative; and although in the first and second persons the reflexive pronouns are the same as the personal ones, in the third person they are different, i.e.:
case personal reflexive
nominative is N/A
genitive eius sui
dative ei sibi
accusative eum se
ablative eo se
Anyway, the point is that having cases while being caseless makes for some genuine weirdness. English is such a fscked up language. But that's what makes it so damn fun.