Hypothetical question

[XMan]

If Churchill and/or Roosevelt had gone into Nazi Germany pre-emptively for violating the terms of the Armistice, would it have been justified?

 

[Red Dawn]

You mean before they annexed the Rhineland?

 

[XMan]

Originally posted by: Red Dawn
You mean before they annexed the Rhineland?

Yes, during the period when they were training forces (in Russia, IIRC my AP history class) and military manufacturing capabilities.

 

[Zebo]

Hitler and Germany pre-emptivly attacked Poland because thier woman were being raped by poles and border villages ransacked.. Were they justified?

BTW- That was also construed as a "War on Terror."

 

[Red Dawn]

Well Churchill wasn't the PM then. I think that Mussolini wanted to go into Germany when the Nazi's marched into Prague but was disuaded by the French.

 

[XMan]

Originally posted by: Zebo
Hitler and Germany pre-emptivly attacked Poland because thier woman were being raped by poles and border villages ransacked.. Were they justified?

Not sure how that answers my question, even if it's true.

 

[XMan]

Originally posted by: Red Dawn
Well Churchill wasn't the PM then. I think that Mussolini wanted to go into Germany when the Nazi's marched into Prague but was disuaded by the French.

Good point on Churchill, I'd forgotten about good ol' Neville . . . ye gods what am I still doing up at 5AM.

 

[Red Dawn]

Originally posted by: X-Man

Originally posted by: Red Dawn
Well Churchill wasn't the PM then. I think that Mussolini wanted to go into Germany when the Nazi's marched into Prague but was disuaded by the French.

Good point on Churchill, I'd forgotten about good ol' Neville . . . ye gods what am I still doing up at 5AM.

I'm up because I feel asleep last night at 7:30 after spending all day at the N.E. Motorcycle show.

France , England and Italy would have been justified because Germany broke the terms of the Armistice but neither England or France had any stomach for more war, especially France after she lost so many men in WW1

 

[Zebo]

Originally posted by: X-Man

Originally posted by: Zebo
Hitler and Germany pre-emptivly attacked Poland because thier woman were being raped by poles and border villages ransacked.. Were they justified?

Not sure how that answers my question, even if it's true.

Let American prosecutor at nuemburg answer it for you then:

"The question of causation is important and will be discussed for many years, but it has no place in this trial, which must rather stick rigorously to the doctrine that planning and launching an aggressive war is illegal, whatever may be the factors that caused the defendants to plan and to launch. Contributing causes may be pleaded by the defendants before the bar of history, but not before the tribunal."

 

[XMan]

Originally posted by: Zebo

Originally posted by: X-Man

Originally posted by: Zebo
Hitler and Germany pre-emptivly attacked Poland because thier woman were being raped by poles and border villages ransacked.. Were they justified?

Not sure how that answers my question, even if it's true.

Let American prosecutor at nuemburg answer it for you then:

"The question of causation is important and will be discussed for many years, but it has no place in this trial, which must rather stick rigorously to the doctrine that planning and launching an aggressive war is illegal, whatever may be the factors that caused the defendants to plan and to launch. Contributing causes may be pleaded by the defendants before the bar of history, but not before the tribunal."

Fair enough - though I'd say it could easily be argued that Poland would have been invaded rapes or not, which somewhat eliminates at as a possible causation, no?