Ritholtz is wrong. I've already explained that.
And as I said, many times, interest rates for long-term products, such as 30-year mortgages WERE affected, but only because risk-premiums were squeezed. HOWEVER, when it comes down to "affordability" products, they were completely delinked from long-term or short-term rates. Considering the Fed cannot directly affect short-term rates, unless other measures are used (and they weren't), the FFR didn't touch long-term rates (which didn't matter anyway for the worst of the subprime). His points are also for the credit bubble in general, but also aren't hitting the button, as it doesn't discuss the real reasons for the bubble. If anything he's just pointing to the simpler explanation since people like you wouldn't "get" it (as you don't now).
Any fucking moron with a brain can tell that, even us "faggots" as you label us.
Yet again, you fail to do any analysis and just link shit. Do you even think on your own or is there a puppeteer that does everything for you.
Momma wipe your ass too?